Spanish language learning forums

Spanish language learning forums (http://forums.tomisimo.org/index.php)
-   Grammar (http://forums.tomisimo.org/forumdisplay.php?f=19)
-   -   Question about Spanish adverbs (http://forums.tomisimo.org/showthread.php?t=12759)

laepelba March 04, 2012 02:50 PM

Question about Spanish adverbs
 
I am reading a chapter about Spanish adverbs. I will copy the following directly from the text:

Quote:

Some Spanish adverbs ending in -mente have a narrower meaning than their corresponding adjectives in English:

Les hablé fríamente. <--> I spoke to them coldly.
Discutimos el tema acaloradamente. <--> We discussed the subject hotly.
El público aplaudió calurosamente. <--> The public applauded warmly.
I understand how the Spanish sentences and the English sentences are equivalent. But I don't understand what they mean by the "narrower meaning" in Spanish than in English. Can someone expound on that for me, please? Thanks!!

JPablo March 04, 2012 09:21 PM

Mmmmh...
Good question. Out of context, it seems that the English adverbs may have a lot of different connotations, while the Spanish ones are much more specific and/or "univalent", ie., more narrow in terms of its meaning. (That is just my guess...)

Probably it's a matter of checking the meaning of each adverb in the examples in Spanish and in English and see the semantic field of these terms equivalents... and then you can extrapolate... Like 2+2 may be 6 in one type of Math, while 2+2 may be 3 in some other "universe"... thus, being a bit narrower. (Being a bit facetious here, but it happens that 2 words with "3 meanings" each in one language may be 2 words with 2 and 1 meaning respectively in another language...)

As I say, just my supposition...

Don José March 05, 2012 08:52 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by laepelba (Post 122823)
But I don't understand what they mean by the "narrower meaning" in Spanish than in English.

Neither do I, looking at the examples. :thinking::thinking:

AngelicaDeAlquezar March 05, 2012 12:47 PM

If that's all explanation you're given, it doesn't actually make much sense... but I kind of agree with Pablo. Perhaps if you give examples of many cases where you'd use these adjectives, we can compare with the equivalents in Spanish and then make up some justification for it. :thinking:

laepelba March 05, 2012 01:26 PM

JPablo - I know the idea of a "narrower meaning", but I simply didn't understand how they apply here. In fact, I thought that their examples proved the opposite.

For example, I would use "coldly" as temperature or as lacking emotion. But, as an adverb, that's all I can think of, even with a dictionary in front of me. The rest of the uses of "cold" as an adjective wouldn't work as adverbs.

An odd statement. I'm glad that I'm not the only one to find it so....

Perikles March 05, 2012 01:32 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by laepelba (Post 122859)
An odd statement. I'm glad that I'm not the only one to find it so....

My fairly exhaustive Spanish grammar book does not indicate any "narrower meaning" in Spanish adverbs, and I find the expression meaningless. It does say that the adverbs ending in -mente are often avoided with phrases used instead. This might mean that the Spanish -mente adverbs are less used that equivalent -ly English ones, but I don´t see how that leads to a "narrower meaning" :thinking:

laepelba March 05, 2012 01:37 PM

Yes, the book spends very few pages on "-mente" adverbs and many pages on adverbial phrases. I believe I remember reading something at some point in time previously that "-mente" verbs are not as widely used when there is an equivalent phrase......

Glen February 04, 2014 10:02 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by laepelba (Post 122862)
Yes, the book spends very few pages on "-mente" adverbs and many pages on adverbial phrases. I believe I remember reading something at some point in time previously that "-mente" verbs are not as widely used when there is an equivalent phrase......

Good, I'm glad to hear it's not just me. Is the phenomenon a sort of carry-over from English? I hear it mostly from people who already know English well and maybe adopt the pattern without thinking.
What brought me to this thread (two years later now) is a recent doubt that teoricamente is as good as en teoría for "theoretically."
Not to mention humanamente posible for "humanly possible," and so many other examples.
Anyway, right or wrong as a beginner I try to avoid bringing English habits over into Spanish - it just doesn't sound as authentic!

AngelicaDeAlquezar February 04, 2014 11:29 PM

"Teóricamente" is the same as "en teoría", yes... it is true that there are many adverbial expressions that have a -mente equivalent in Spanish.
We do tend to avoid several -mente adverbs in the same sentence or paragraph (we don't like repetition in many language features), but I'm not sure about the fact that we use them less. Do you have any examples where you find this would be the case? :thinking:

Glen February 05, 2014 02:24 PM

One example that strikes me is Personalmente,.... . since it sounds so much like a too-direct borrowing from "Personally,... ." Would something else such as En lo personal,... sound more castizo or am I just barking up the wrong tree? Call me a purist but I only want to avoid mixing language patterns, in an effort to sound like someone whose Spanish has not been contaminated by English.


All times are GMT -6. The time now is 07:41 PM.

Forum powered by vBulletin® Copyright ©2000 - 2024, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.