Lo vs le
No lo pagues. (Don’t pay him.) him = Direct object pronoun
Is ‘him’ direct or indirect here? Could we assume the direct object is implied (e.g. money), which would make 'him' indirect (le: No le pagues.) Many thanks. |
To me:
But there could be nuances here that I'm glossing over. Side question: Would you use lo or le with saludar? "Voy a saludarlo" or "Voy a saludarle"? :D |
I agree with Tomisimo. You pay for the thing you bought from someone, so the direct object is the thing and the person is the indirect object.
@David: "Saludarlo" in Mexico. In Spain though, they use "le", which is called "leísmo de cortesía". |
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