Grammar question: why present subj?
 

Yes, my grammar still sucks.

Today I had a lesson from a native speaker (Venezuela). I didn't have time to ask her,

Why is this sentence using the present subjunctive?


El gobierno no puede prohibir que las personas que tengan carros.


Translation: The government can't prohibit people from having cars.


To me this is an indicative sentence. It's a statement of fact.

Why did she correct me to use the present subjunctive "tengan" of tener?


Gracias.

The conjunction just prior to 'tengan' should not be there.

The verb prohibir is a verb of influence and, therefore, requires the subjunctive mood in the 'que' clause. Whenever someone tries to influence another, the pattern is 'subject A + verb of influence (present indicative) + que + subject B + verb (present subjunctive)'. (If there's no change in subject, the infinitive is used instead of the 'que' clause.)

Verbs and Expressions of Influence or Will
aconsejar que
alentar que
hacer que
decir que
dejar que
desear que
exigir que
gustar que
insistir en que
mandar que
necesitar que
querer que
oponerse a que
pedir que
no permitir que
preferir que
prohibir que
proponer que
recomendar que
rogar que
sugerir que

So, "que" should be omitted. Thank you. My Spanish teacher missed that or perhaps it's colloquial where she's from. She's not an officially trained teacher.

Thanks rusty. I will save the notes and list below. Much appreciated!


Gracias.