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-   -   Why is "¡Te me largas!" imperative? (http://forums.tomisimo.org/showthread.php?t=15507)

levi.leans April 07, 2013 02:43 PM

Why is "¡Te me largas!" imperative?
 
How come it's said as a statement rather than a command? Does that mean"¡Me lo da!" Is equivalent to "¡Damelo!" ?

poli April 08, 2013 09:49 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by levi.leans (Post 135995)
How come it's said as a statement rather than a command? Does that mean"¡Me lo da!" Is equivalent to "¡Damelo!" ?

I think it's ¡que te me largas! or more commonly lárgate de mi. I'm pretty sure I'm right, but Spanish is my second language. Wait for a native speaker for a definitive answer.

AngelicaDeAlquezar April 08, 2013 11:45 AM

@levi: Conjugation in present can work as an imperative in many cases. Sometimes it's to make it sound less harsh (¿Me das ese libro? vs. ¡Dame ese libro!), sometimes it's just as harsh (¡Te me largas ahora mismo! vs. ¡Lárgate!).

-¿Me da un café por favor? (very polite - Can I have a coffee please?)
-Deme un café por favor. (polite - Please give me a coffee.)
-Deme un café. (Not very polite - Give me a coffee.)



@Poli: I think that "que" at the start of a sentence is only used in Spain. At least in Mexico, we never use it.

chileno April 08, 2013 11:51 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by levi.leans (Post 135995)
How come it's said as a statement rather than a command? Does that mean"¡Me lo da!" Is equivalent to "¡Démelo!" ?

Like Angélica said, yes. :)

levi.leans April 08, 2013 12:57 PM

Thank you all so very much!!!!!!!


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