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-   -   Leísmo (http://forums.tomisimo.org/showthread.php?t=23729)

fglorca May 06, 2019 05:48 AM

Leísmo
 
Assuming that my object pronouns all refer to people below, are my sentences correct?

Am I correct in saying that only 1 and 3 allow for 'leísmo' to take place?
  1. I love him: Lo quiero / Le quiero
  2. I love her: La quiero / La quiero
  3. I love them (all male): Los quiero / Les quiero
  4. I love them (mixed gender): Los quiero / Los quiero
  5. I love them (all female): Las quiero / Las quiero

Many thanks in advance.

Tomisimo May 06, 2019 11:22 AM

I believe that is correct, but I'm not very familiar with leísmo in practical usage. Remember to only use it in areas where leísmo is common.

AngelicaDeAlquezar May 06, 2019 04:27 PM

According to the RAE, "leísmo" is accepted when the direct object is a man. ("Le quiero".)
When it's a plural --"les quiero"-- its use is advised against, and it's considered plain incorrect when it's an inanimate object.

When it's a woman, "le" is accepted in impersonal sentences --"a mi abuela se le quería mucho en el pueblo".

There is also a "leísmo de cortesía", which is used for people to whom you call "usted":
"Disculpe, no le había visto; ¿le puedo atender?"

fglorca May 12, 2019 12:23 PM

Many thanks, guys.
With the "leísmo de cortesía", does the same rule apply to the plural form?

Examples:
Encantado de conocerlo. (male)
Encantado de conocerla. (female)
Encantado de conocerle. (male or female, or is it just male?)
Encantado de conocerlos. (male, plural)
Encantado de conocerlas. (female, plural)
Encantado de conocerles. (male or female, or is it just male?)
I have heard this last one used quite a lot for mixed gender...

AngelicaDeAlquezar May 12, 2019 03:38 PM

If I understand well, when it's "leísmo de cortesía", it doesn't matter if they're males or females, the only thing one needs is that you would address them as "ustedes".


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