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-   -   Hacerle Falta / Carecer (http://forums.tomisimo.org/showthread.php?t=25489)

Bobbert August 14, 2020 09:54 PM

Hacerle Falta / Carecer
 
Our city lacks affordable housing

1. Are either of these attempts below grammatically correct?

2. Can both "Hacerle Falta" and "Carecer" be used to convey "To Lack" in this sentence?

Nuestra ciudad carece de viviendas asequibles

Nuestra ciudad le hacen falta viviendas asequibles


Thanks for any help you can give me.

AngelicaDeAlquezar August 17, 2020 03:13 PM

Answers below: :)


Quote:

Originally Posted by Bobbert (Post 179614)
Our city lacks affordable housing

1. Are either of these attempts below grammatically correct? Yes, they mostly are. ;)

2. Can both "Hacerle Falta" and "Carecer" be used to convey "To Lack" in this sentence? Absolutely.

Nuestra ciudad carece de viviendas asequibles :good:

A nuestra ciudad le hacen falta viviendas asequibles
* You need "a", because "hacerle falta algo a alguien" has a construction similar to "gustarle algo a alguien". What the city lacks (affordable housing) is the Direct Object, and the city is the Indirect Object. ;)


Bobbert August 17, 2020 10:46 PM

Thank you, AngelicadeAlquezar. That clears it up for me.

Tyrn August 18, 2020 03:27 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by AngelicaDeAlquezar (Post 179636)
A nuestra ciudad le hacen falta viviendas asequibles.


What about A nuestra ciudad le faltan viviendas asequibles?

AngelicaDeAlquezar August 19, 2020 07:12 PM

That's correct too, Tyrn. :)


@Bobbert: I made a mistake: :duh:

A nuestra ciudad le hacen falta viviendas asequibles
* You need "a", because "hacerle falta algo a alguien" has a construction similar to "gustarle algo a alguien". What the city lacks (affordable housing) is the SUBJECT OF THE SENTENCE, and the city is the Indirect Object


Sorry. :blackeye: :footinmouth:

Tyrn August 20, 2020 06:14 AM

Not just correct (le faltan), but means exactly the same thing?

Tomisimo August 20, 2020 07:45 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Tyrn (Post 179659)
Not just correct (le faltan), but means exactly the same thing?

That leads you to a philosophical linguistic question. Does a synonym ever mean the *exact* same thing as another synonym? :D

But to answer your question, both "le faltan" and "carecen de" mean basically the same thing. If I had to describe a difference, I think the second might sound like a slightly higher register or a little more professional.

But there are differences too. For example, if something has been stolen, you would use faltar, not carecer to describe that.

AngelicaDeAlquezar August 20, 2020 01:47 PM

I agree with Tomísimo. Context is everything.


As a speaker, "carecer de" describes for me some sort of an inherent quality that is by definition hard to modify, while "faltar" describes more a defect that can be fixed more easily.
Yet, it will all depend on the situation where these sentences are said; it's not the same to state it as a formal complaint, a proposal or just an informal opinion. :)

Bobbert August 20, 2020 08:36 PM

AngelicadeAlquezar, There is no need to be sorry. I made the correction in my notebook.

Tyrn August 21, 2020 10:46 AM

Thanks! Very interesting.

Actually I asked about another thing: is there any difference between le hacen falta and le faltan.


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