Subjunctive Vs Future Tense
 

I don’t think that they can all come (No creo que todos ‘puedan’ venir).

Can we also use a future tense for the second verb?

No creo que ‘podrán’ venir.

Muchas gracias de antemano.

No, you must use the subjunctive when 'no creo' constitutes the main clause.

No creo que vayan a venir.

If you use the affirmative in the main clause, however, you may have a negated future tense verb in the secondary clause.

Creo que no van a venir.

Thanks, Rusty.

Hi there

I found this thread when googling a similar question to the OP.

The following line comes from my textbook:

Espero que ya habrán recibido my carta y que me traigan todo lo que les han pedido.

The context is that a kid has written to the Magi.

I would have thought that "hayan" should be used instead of "habrán" in that sentence. Has "habrán" been used because the verb in that sentence is "espero" rather than "no creo"? If so, would the sentence have the same meaning if "hayan" were used instead?


Thanks

Correct.

No, it would have a somewhat different meaning.

Remember that "esperar" can translate both "to expect" and "to hope".

"Espero que habrán recibido mi carta" = I expect that they (must) have received my letter (I sent it a while ago, I would be surprised if it hasn't been delivered already).

"Espero que hayan recibido mi carta" = I hope that they have received my letter (I have no idea whether it has arrived or not).

Unless that textbook is for extremely advanced students and some other explanations are provided, it's safe to say that the textbook is mistaken and your instinct about it should have been "hayan" correct.

But the sentence is correct, anyway.

There's something there call focus. The speaker wants to show his high expectation of a safe arrival of the letter by focusing it via changing subjunctive into indicative. In this case the tense chosen is future because it doesn't mean future but what is know as "futuro de conjetura".

Example of futuro de conjetura.

A chess player needs to use the restrooms and when he comes back he finds one of his bishops in a different, vulnerable position. He says to his oppponent:
¿No me habrás movido las piezas cuando no estaba?

Example of focus:

Any example using "a lo mejor" and indicative (because it's not true what the dictionaries tell about "a lo mejor" meaning "quizá/s"). The different mood has focused on the expected option or outcome over any other available option or possible outcome.

Perdóname por desviar el discurso, pero si a lo mejor no significa quizás quisiera saber su significado. ¿...quizás con un aspecto positivo?:thinking:

Sí, algo así.

(a lo mejor) me saco la lotería (expectation of having the winning ticket, or at least that is the only pme that matters to the speaker so it seems evem more likely to be drawn than any other ticket)

= (puede bien ser) que me saque la lotería

Con quizás el hablante está haciendo una estimación.
Con a lo mejor el hablante está diciendo cuál es la probabilidad en la que más está interesado.

Would "espero que habrán" show a higher degree of expectation than "espero que han"?


In the example with the chess players, would this be a fair statement?

"¿No me has movido las piezas cuando no estaba?" would sound more like a direct accusation than "¿No me habrás movido las piezas cuando no estaba?"

Yes.

Spanish indicative expects things to be done or to have been done. Spanish subjunctive is the domain of things that are not done, from negative commands to anything that is not lively enough to be expressed using indicative.

Exactly. With "habrán" the accusation is soften as a conjecture ("I'm not saying you did, but it looks that way"). Here the difference is that subjunctive "hayas" means the speaker is not sure, while indicative indicates the speaker has evidence or is convinced about the trick. The futuro de conjetura softens the blow so the conversation is not so confrontational.