[dupond]

Hi everyone

When translating si clauses dealing with counterfactuals, what happens when there is more than one verb in the si clause? Do all the verbs take the past subjunctive?

For example, I translated the following sentence with Google:

This story would be easier to write if there were some clear event that made John realise he was wrong.

Esta historia sería más fácil de escribir si hubiera algún evento claro que hiciera que Juan se diera cuenta de que estaba equivocado.

It sounds about right, although I'm not entirely sure if it should be "estaba" or "estuviera".

I changed one word in that sentence and got a different mood in the Google translation.

Esta historia sería más fácil de decir si había algún evento claro que hizo Juan darse cuenta de que estaba equivocado.

I'd say that that all the verbs in the si clause are in the wrong mood, except maybe "estaba" but I'm not sure. I'd only ever seen si clauses with one verb.

Thanks