Hi,
Thanks for the reply.
1)
Cita:
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el pasado se nos muestra rico en conflictos: the past shows it to be one plenty of conflicts.
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Not quite right in English. You could say: "the past shows it to be one
with plenty of conflicts." But more likely "the past reveals itself as being rife with conflict". In either case I'm not quite sure where the "nos" is being rendered, if at all. Perhaps in English it is assumed that in showing, it is showing us. Or at least this assumption is more likely to be made. Not sure.
2)
Okay, the "vigencia formal" makes more sense. I've seen this:
Cita:
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(la ley) goza de plena vigencia formal y material > (the law) is in full force and effect
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which might mean vigencia "distributes" to formal and material, or at least that is one way I've tried to understand the translation. That is, it could also be written as:
"(la ley) goza de plena vigencia formal y vigencia material."
In which case, "vigencia formal" combined could mean "force". But I'm still feeling there is something Aristotelian that's not perhaps quite translatable, or is it mere coincidence that "formal" and "material" are the first two of Aristotle's causes.