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Old May 11, 2007, 01:30 PM
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Join Date: May 2006
Location: North America
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History of Spanish

A few days ago an acquaintance asked a question concerning the history of Spanish and I thought maybe someone here knew something about it. The question is Why are the preterit(e) forms of ser and ir (fui, fuiste, fue, etc...) the same? Is there any historical reason/explanation?
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