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Old April 11, 2012, 01:19 PM
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wrholt wrholt is offline
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Originally Posted by Perikles View Post
You might think that is logical, but I don't think it is logical for statements in the past where there is no causal relationship.

A: She put her coat on before it started to rain.
B: She put her coat on before she caught a cold.

In A, there is no causal relationship, but there is in B. If I'm not mistaken, Spanish would use a subjunctive in both A and B, but I don't think this is logical in A. As a comparison, I think I'm right in saying that at least Latin, Greek and German would use a subjunctive in B, but not A.
This is intriguing. I haven't studied any languages other than English and Spanish for long enough to learn the appropriate ways to say these two sentences.

I've always found the fact that "antes (de) que" always takes the subjunctive to be perfectly logical based on the argument that it makes no assertion whatsoever regarding either (a) the reality or lack of reality of the content of its dependent clause, or (b) the presence or lack of any causal relationship between the content of the main clause and the content of the dependent clause.

The fact that Spanish grammar does not allow one to explicity state the presence or absence of a causal relationship between the main clause and the dependent clause by means of the choice of verb mood, while Latin, Greek and German do, is certainly a very interesting comparison between these languages.
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