Quote:
Originally Posted by laepelba
I know. I didn't say that it was a reflexive verb. I said it was pronomial.
What is wrong with the sentence "Yo me burlo a mí misma"?? Doesn't that mean "I tease myself"?? From what Rusty said, I thought that the pronoun was supposed to agree with the subject, "yo" and "me" in that sentence DO agree. What's wrong with it?
Also, I'm not asking about the "burlar" non-pronomial verb, but "burlarse", the pronomial verb....
Which brings me back to my question (see my second post above): it doesn't make sense to me in the meaning. If it is "Yo me burlo..." or "Tú te burlas..." does it mean that "I, myself, am teasing...." and "You, yourself, are teasing..."?? What is the point of the pronoun?
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I don understand why irma says that "me burlé a mí misma/o" is incorrect. It means "I teased/fooled myself"
Consider this:
Yo me burlo. Could mean that I tease.fool myself.
Yo me burlo de ti. I am making fun of you, I am teasing/fooling you.
Now:
Tú te burlas. You make fun of... You are teasing/fooling...
That's it. Do your part!