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As mentioned, the subjunctive is used in the OP's sentences because there is uncertainty on the part of the framer of the question.
(The use of the conjunction 'que' is not an indicator that the clause which follows is drafted in the subjunctive mood. Whether the subjunctive is used or not is driven by what appears in the other clause.)
I wanted to point out that the past participle used to form the perfect tenses is invariable. It doesn't agree in gender or number with the subject. So, 'has visto' should have appeared in the second sentence instead of 'has vista'.
When the past participle is being used as an adjective (or predicate adjective), it then agrees in gender and number.
Last edited by Rusty; June 10, 2020 at 09:49 PM.
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