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I was out reading what I could find on causative verbs followed by an infinitive, in particular, the 'hacer-infinitive' construction, and found a few theses written on the subject and posted on the internet.
The one thesis I started to read went into much more detail than I would care to post here, but you should know that it cited cases where both the accusative and the dative pronouns could be used. It also cited cases where a prepositional pronoun (following 'por') could be used. I didn't totally follow what they were trying to explain, so perhaps I should devote some more time to it before saying anything more. Some theses are written only to expose the fact that there are differing views.
One thing is certain, there is ample evidence on the internet that both the direct object and the indirect object pronouns are used (the direct object pronoun capturing the most hits). I chalked this up to regional usage, but maybe it's a bit more complicated.
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