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Old March 21, 2008, 10:59 AM
Alfonso Alfonso is offline
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Thanks a lot, Gramática, but I didn't say anything about connection between two verbs, but about the idea of companion that these two verbs can convey.

Quote:
Originally Posted by gramatica View Post
Isn't it the same in Spanish? ¿No se dice "falla en la idea de una (connotación/) conexión entre estos dos verbos (que se puede expresar)"= it lakes the idea of a connotation/connection between these two verbs (that can be expressed/conveyed)

Espero que te sirva

Regards
So, what I meant, I don't know if rightly expressed or not, is that both verbs can convey the same idea of companion, what is the lack I found in David's rule.

The phrase you wrote in Spanish would be: [La regla] falla en la idea, que se puede expresar, de conexión entre estos dos verbos, but it doesn't make too much sense to me.

Anyway, I think I found the way of the sentence: the rule lacks the idea of companion that these two verbs can convey. Is it right?
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Alfonso
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