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Old January 20, 2013, 09:21 PM
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What you've been told is how various people or regions use it, which may or may not agree with the rules.

The rules governing which complement(s) a verb may take are set in stone and we should already know them. Perhaps we need to get our heads around something first to make it more clear - the rules are not affected by whether an infinitive also happens to be in the phrase. This has nothing to do with whether the verb 'hacer' or the verb 'dejar' takes a direct or an indirect object.

A direct object answers the question 'what?' or 'whom?'.
An indirect object answers the question 'to whom?' or 'to what?'.

In the case of 'hacer' (whose English meaning is 'make', as in 'compel', in your examples), ask the question "What did I make/compel (to do something)?" or "Whom did I make/compel (to do something)?" The latter question is clearly answered with a direct object. "I made him (do something)."
If that isn't clear enough, try the passive voice. If 'him' becomes 'he' in the passive voice, you're dealing with a direct object.
"Who is made (to do something)?"
"He is made (to do something)."

In the case of 'dejar' (let, allow), just swap the verb in the questions asked above.
"Whom did I allow (to do something)?" "I allowed her (to do something)."
Passive voice test:
"Who is allowed (to do something)?" "She is."

As you can see, neither of these verbs takes an indirect object, so using the indirect object pronoun 'le' should be out of the question (except where regional usage overrides prescriptive grammar).
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