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Old January 20, 2013, 09:45 PM
LearningSpanish LearningSpanish is offline
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Good tips, thanks Rusty. With the infinitive one suggestion I came across as to why the indirect object might be used is that the infinitive can be seen as the object of the main verb, making an indirect object necessary to represent the person affected by the main verb's action.

Les mandé hacer lo mismo. I told (ordered) them to do the same.

Couldn't mandar etc be viewed in a similar light to why decir is used with an indirect object pronoun; taking into account that 'what you say' is the object of the verb and the person being told then indirectly receives the action of the verb?

eg - Le dije que no.

And the 'to whom' or 'to what' and passive test doesn't always work - take for instance such phrases as:

Le hizo daño. (It hurt him.) etc Not 'to whom' or 'to what' but 'him' (d.o.) - Passive: Who was hurt? he was (d.o.)

Les hacían feliz. (It made them happy.) Les tengo miedo. (I'm afraid for them.)

Last edited by LearningSpanish; January 20, 2013 at 10:33 PM.
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