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Old February 17, 2017, 08:23 AM
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aleCcowaN aleCcowaN is offline
Join Date: Aug 2010
Location: Buenos Aires, Argentina
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Native Language: Castellano
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Originally Posted by Bobbert View Post
“………because you can use imperfect subjunctive instead of conditional when everything happened in the past.” I have never heard that rule so that really answered my question.
Just a few comments.

The rule saying "never use hubiera when habría does the job" comes from Central Spain and it was one of the battle horses of RAE before the inception of the newer and more encompassing "Nueva Gramática...".

The rest of the world, including parts of Spain, always uses hubiera for developments in the past. In fact, la regla culta says that it always has to be hubiera and never hubiese, because it comes from an old perfective use in indicative (Sephardi Jews still use it that way). Of course Southern Spaniards would object casting out their precious hubiese, so a camp battle between RAE and "people's" partisans would start in every web forum, and 90% of native Spanish speakers would be treated as ignorants for not admitting hubiese yet using hubiera. You had to have the patience of Job (not my strong suit when a person is obtuse and impervious to the learning process)

Today it's all over. Both groups of Spaniards are blessed to use their local or rationalized styles while most of the Spanish speaking world uses what I explained, without ignoring or fighting the others, as that makes everyone richer.

The only drawback here is that you may have learnt it the ol'e "RAE rules" way which was pretty much "most speakers must **** ***". Foreign non native teachers had been led to believe that using that and other similar ways they were being more educated than the sorry natives. They're now changing ... snail pace.
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