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Old June 27, 2011, 12:27 PM
Luna Azul Luna Azul is offline
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Join Date: Mar 2011
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Perikles View Post
True, but I think it is presented that way because when used for a direct object, it is not translated into another preposition, but just omitted, simply because the direct object doesn't need a preposition in English. I think I'm right in saying this also true for Romance languages generally, except Spanish and Portuguese.
Ok . I don't why it's used in Spanish. The fact is, it is.. It would make sense if I said "amo mis hijos". But it's not correct...

As it happens so frequently with English, Spanish also has its own extravagancies .
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