Please help to identify correct sentence in Spanish.

[Rusty]

No part of speech is allowed between the auxiliary verb and the participle that form the perfect tenses.
haber (place no part of speech here) llevado


Suponer is stating something that is real, as far as the speaker is concerned (it is his assumption), so the indicative is used. However, if the negated form is used (no suponer), this is not an assumption, but is an opinion on the part of the speaker, and the subjunctive mood is in play.

[AngelicaDeAlquezar]

The order is flexible. We often choose merely for reasons of euphony.

"Habrá usted llevado" = "Habrá llevado usted" = "Usted habrá llevado"

Notice that in all cases, it's "llevado", not "llevada". In compound verbs, there is no agreement between the subject and the past participle.


Adding to Rusty's reply on the subjunctive, There is no room for the subjunctive, since you're already using the future perfect. This particular case of a future tense already implies an uncertainty.

[DMV]

Hello, everyone.


Another question about meaning of some words in the sentence.


Here is the sentence in question "Eso se lo dice a todas."


The question is regarding "se" and "lo" here. Could anybody clarify the use of those pronouns here? To what do they refer here?


Thank you in advance.

[Rusty]

The sentence in question could mean:
That's what they (no one specifically referenced) say to everyone (all female).
-or-
That's what he/she/you (specific person referenced) says/say to everyone (all female).

One of the several uses of 'se' is to indicate that no one in particular is being referenced. We call this usage the impersonal 'se'.

The other possibility is that 'se' is a reference to 'a todas', so it's a replacement of the indirect object pronoun 'les'. 'les', or le, as the case may be, is always changed to 'se' when directly followed by another object pronoun. The cacophony of 'le lo', or 'les lo', is thus avoided.

The other pronoun 'lo' is a direct object pronoun that refers to 'what' was said. In your sentence, it's referent is 'eso'.

It can be argued that both of the pronouns are redundant; that is, both referents are clearly contained in the sentence. So, why are the pronouns used? Having a redundant pronoun in a sentence is a common practice.
And not providing a subject pronoun is also very common.

[DMV]

Rusty, muchas gracias por su respuesta.