#21  
Old August 29, 2009, 01:11 AM
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You're welcome. But avoid that sort of pronunciation, that's good to know because you'll understand what they say, but good pronunciation is better
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  #22  
Old August 29, 2009, 01:13 AM
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Oh definitely! I don't think I would ever use the word but its always good to know what it means when I hear it.

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  #23  
Old August 29, 2009, 04:14 AM
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Somehow the word 'fetidez' doesn't seem compatible to the notion of 'rankness' and 'smelliness' to me..

Perhaps I am associating it with the French 'la Fête' also used in my native language (feteren = to celebrate something or someone).

So I was expecting something festive and joyful.. imagine my surprise..
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Old August 29, 2009, 09:36 AM
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@Elaina: Es muy común que la gente pronuncie "jediondo"... quizás hay más personas que lo dicen así que los que saben que se escribe con h y no con j... No hay mucho qué hacer, salvo que si lo pronuncias como ellos, tú sí sabes que no es la palabra que está en el diccionario.
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Old August 29, 2009, 09:43 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by laepelba View Post
Okay - so a couple of questions: from YOUR corrections to MY sentence ... shouldn't it be:
Sus zapatillas de gimnasia estuvieron dentro de su casillero por dos meses, hay una gran fetidez.
* zapatillas should be plural?
* I used fetidez because it's the word of the day ... does it NOT work in this sentence?
Es nosotro' lo' chileno' no' comemo' toda' l' ese'

Correcto, my typo. And malila is correct hediondez is used more in that context, whereas fetidez is used in the context as explained by her.
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  #26  
Old August 29, 2009, 09:45 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Elaina View Post

You know, I over heard a spanish speaking couple about a terrible smell and dirtiness of the basement of a house. They said something like this.........
"Estaba jediondo y apestaba muy mal"

And I was confused. I couldn't find the word "jediondo" anywhere. From what you have written, it seems the correct word is hediondo but they were pronouncing the english "h" which I interpreted as being a "j" since the "h" is silent. Am I making sense? Do you know what I'm saying?

Oh well. At least now I know. But I am still confused.....is it written hediondo but pronounced "jediondo"?

I have heard people from Mexico, here in the US, to say it that way.

Which is totally incorrect...
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  #27  
Old August 29, 2009, 11:06 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by chileno View Post
I have heard people from Mexico, here in the US, to say it that way.

Which is totally incorrect...
Well, it all depends. For instance, in Andalucía, where Andaluz is spoken (a Spanish dialect), there are places where /h/ is pronounced with aspiration, similar to /j/. For instance, they say "me pegué una jartá" (me pegué una hartada/hartazgo). Really this is not incorrect, this is the way of speaking in certain areas. You should learn that way if you want to speak Andaluz, but if you want to speak Spanish, then you must avoid this

This /h/ with aspiration is not used with all words, for instance "hijo" is not pronounced [jijo], but [ijo] (sorry, no IPA)
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  #28  
Old August 30, 2009, 10:08 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by irmamar View Post
Well, it all depends. For instance, in Andalucía, where Andaluz is spoken (a Spanish dialect), there are places where /h/ is pronounced with aspiration, similar to /j/. For instance, they say "me pegué una jartá" (me pegué una hartada/hartazgo). Really this is not incorrect, this is the way of speaking in certain areas. You should learn that way if you want to speak Andaluz, but if you want to speak Spanish, then you must avoid this

This /h/ with aspiration is not used with all words, for instance "hijo" is not pronounced [jijo], but [ijo] (sorry, no IPA)
It depends if Andaluz is one of the dialects considered official language for Spain... It used to be incorrect when Castilian was the only official language...¿no?
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  #29  
Old August 31, 2009, 12:05 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by laepelba View Post
pjt33 - what do you mean by "sustantivo cognado"?
In English, cognate noun.
See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cognate_(etymology)
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  #30  
Old September 03, 2009, 09:58 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by chileno View Post
It depends if Andaluz is one of the dialects considered official language for Spain... It used to be incorrect when Castilian was the only official language...¿no?
Dialects are not considered official in Spain. Just languages (and not all of them are official). The difference between a dialect and a language is that in dialects mother language still exists, but it doesn't in languages. For instance: Spanish, Galician and Catalonian comes from Latin. As Latin doesn't already exist, these old dialects have become into languages (never think that Catalonian or Galician comes from Spanish, this is a great mistake ). As Andaluz is a dialect from Spanish (and Spanish still exists), it's not considered a language (even there are opinions that say that Andaluz isn't a dialect, but a way of speaking (variante dialectal o habla andaluza), but I don't agree with them; anyway this is another question)
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