#31  
Old September 07, 2009, 05:05 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by laepelba View Post
DOH! That was a mere spelling error. I know that it's zapatos. Gah! Anyway - is the rest of the sentence okay?
Do you mean a smelling error? If so you have made another spelling error!!!
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  #32  
Old September 08, 2009, 02:11 PM
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(sigh..............) Thanks for helping. It's the gender/number endings that I always seem to miss.............
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  #33  
Old September 09, 2009, 02:20 PM
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Originally Posted by irmamar View Post
Dialects are not considered official in Spain. Just languages (and not all of them are official). The difference between a dialect and a language is that in dialects mother language still exists, but it doesn't in languages. For instance: Spanish, Galician and Catalonian comes from Latin. As Latin doesn't already exist, these old dialects have become into languages (never think that Catalonian or Galician comes from Spanish, this is a great mistake ). As Andaluz is a dialect from Spanish (and Spanish still exists), it's not considered a language (even there are opinions that say that Andaluz isn't a dialect, but a way of speaking (variante dialectal o habla andaluza), but I don't agree with them; anyway this is another question)
I recently heard a good definition for a language:
It is merely a dialect with its own army and navy. In other words the difference is merely a political decision. The dominant speech varient becomes the official one.
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  #34  
Old September 09, 2009, 08:25 PM
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Smelliness could be replaced with bad smell.

Because they mean at most the same.
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  #35  
Old September 10, 2009, 02:08 AM
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Brute, depends what you mean by "dominant". It's the prestige variant which becomes the official one, not necessarily the most widely spoken.
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