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Why is "¡Te me largas!" imperative?

 

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Old April 07, 2013, 03:43 PM
levi.leans levi.leans is offline
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Why is "¡Te me largas!" imperative?

How come it's said as a statement rather than a command? Does that mean"¡Me lo da!" Is equivalent to "¡Damelo!" ?
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Old April 08, 2013, 10:49 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by levi.leans View Post
How come it's said as a statement rather than a command? Does that mean"¡Me lo da!" Is equivalent to "¡Damelo!" ?
I think it's ¡que te me largas! or more commonly lárgate de mi. I'm pretty sure I'm right, but Spanish is my second language. Wait for a native speaker for a definitive answer.
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Old April 08, 2013, 12:45 PM
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@levi: Conjugation in present can work as an imperative in many cases. Sometimes it's to make it sound less harsh (¿Me das ese libro? vs. ¡Dame ese libro!), sometimes it's just as harsh (¡Te me largas ahora mismo! vs. ¡Lárgate!).

-¿Me da un café por favor? (very polite - Can I have a coffee please?)
-Deme un café por favor. (polite - Please give me a coffee.)
-Deme un café. (Not very polite - Give me a coffee.)



@Poli: I think that "que" at the start of a sentence is only used in Spain. At least in Mexico, we never use it.
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Last edited by AngelicaDeAlquezar; April 08, 2013 at 05:23 PM. Reason: Corrected spanglish
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Old April 08, 2013, 12:51 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by levi.leans View Post
How come it's said as a statement rather than a command? Does that mean"¡Me lo da!" Is equivalent to "¡Démelo!" ?
Like Angélica said, yes.
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Old April 08, 2013, 01:57 PM
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Thank you all so very much!!!!!!!
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