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Para or Por

 

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  #31  
Old July 20, 2010, 08:43 AM
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Aaaah, vaya... Claro, si ruedas cuesta abajo sobre la nieve es otra cosa. Yo pensé más bien en una extensión plana.
En ese caso estoy de acuerdo con la extensión de la explicación al respecto de "caer por".
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  #32  
Old October 08, 2010, 07:06 AM
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'Para' and 'por' are probably the single most confusing aspect of Spanish grammar - I've been learnig Spanish for forty years, and I still occasionally get it wrong!

I remember reading many years ago that "Compré la casa para mi padre", meant that I paid for it myself (for him to live in); but "Compré la casa por mi padre" meant that I did all the work but he paid for it. I sought confirmation of this from mi señora (barcelonesa) and she said it was rubbish and each structure could nean either.

Far be it from me to contradict my wife but confidentially, I think she's wrong; what do you guys think?
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  #33  
Old October 08, 2010, 07:33 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Sancho Panther View Post
'Para' and 'por' are probably the single most confusing aspect of Spanish grammar - I've been learnig Spanish for forty years, and I still occasionally get it wrong!

I remember reading many years ago that "Compré la casa para mi padre", meant that I paid for it myself (for him to live in); but "Compré la casa por mi padre" meant that I did all the work but he paid for it. I sought confirmation of this from mi señora (barcelonesa) and she said it was rubbish and each structure could nean either.

Far be it from me to contradict my wife but confidentially, I think she's wrong; what do you guys think?
Por can mean by means of. So, compré una casa por mi papá can mean
that he was instrumental in the purchase. Other example: pago por
carta crédito means I'm paying with a credit card. Pago para una carta crédito means I'm paying to obtain a credit card.
I agree with you that por and para causes problems for us. I say it right
and then correct myself and get it wrong sometimes,
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  #34  
Old October 08, 2010, 08:49 AM
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Also por means "because or as a result"

Sancho, I agree with you.

I cannot think of an instance in which "Compré esta casa para mi padre" could mean "Compré esta casa por mi padre"
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  #35  
Old October 08, 2010, 12:58 PM
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I could say: Compré esta casa por mi padre, porque él me aconsejó que la comprara (just an example).
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  #36  
Old October 08, 2010, 01:56 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by irmamar View Post
I could say: Compré esta casa por mi padre, porque él me aconsejó que la comprara (just an example).
Right, because of him.
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  #37  
Old October 08, 2010, 03:54 PM
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Right. I agree with the answers above.

@Sancho Panzer, what is the exact question?

(What you explained above made sense to me, so it seems to me that tu señora maybe didn't quite get what you meant?)

(It is just a question, because, if I don't understand something that I think I understand and you tell me that "you are wrong" and tell me why, and I get it, then I don't have to wonder anymore. If you tell me "you are wrong" but don't give the reason, then, it is possible a misunderstanding could have occurred...)

Hey, "¡hablando se entiende la gente!"
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  #38  
Old October 09, 2010, 08:25 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by JPablo View Post
Right. I agree with the answers above.

@Sancho Panzer, what is the exact question?

(What you explained above made sense to me, so it seems to me that tu señora maybe didn't quite get what you meant?)

(It is just a question, because, if I don't understand something that I think I understand and you tell me that "you are wrong" and tell me why, and I get it, then I don't have to wonder anymore. If you tell me "you are wrong" but don't give the reason, then, it is possible a misunderstanding could have occurred...)

Hey, "¡hablando se entiende la gente!"
Oh, right!
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  #39  
Old October 09, 2010, 08:30 PM
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So... is this fully clarified for you?
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  #40  
Old November 06, 2010, 12:32 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Rusty View Post
In many languages (although not in English, in most instances), the letter n is pronounced as if it were the letter m when it is followed by a labial consonant (i.e., b, m, p, and v). There is also a spelling convention, which is what you were stating, that the letter n is changed to an m before those consonants.

The spelling convention isn't always followed, like in the word inconveniente, but the pronunciation rule is. This word is pronounced as if an m appeared before the v.
Here are more examples:

Convencer is pronounced combencer.
Conmigo is pronounced commigo.
Enmascarar is pronounced emmascarar.
Sinvergüenza is pronounced simbergüenza.
Tan bien is pronounced exactly like the word también.
En piezas is pronounced exactly like the word empiezas.
I dunno, I don't think that would apply to Latin American Spanish. Are you from Spain, by any chance?
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