Several verbs

[chileno]

Originally Posted by wrholt

I don't think this statement is completely correct.

Human male:
a. Vi a Juan -> le vi. = I saw John -> I saw him
b. Vi al bueno -> le vi. = I saw the good one (male person) -> I saw him.

Non-human masculine noun:
Vi un lápiz -> lo ví. = I saw a pencil -> I saw it.
Vi el bueno -> lo vi. = I saw the good one (thing) -> I saw it.

Neuter:
Vi lo bueno -> lo vi. = I saw the good (abstract noun derived from adjective) -> I saw it.

All that is good but:

le/lo ví (a Juan/él) = I saw (to) him. (right?)

Also for her

Le/la ví (a María/ella) = I saw (to) her

Le ví a usted = I saw you (formal) Latin American Spanish (I am not sure if this form is used in Spain)

[Perikles]

Originally Posted by AngelicaDeAlquezar

Sorry, I disagree with the first one: "Me lo pediste tú" means "you were the one who asked me".

What's the matter with me? Of course you are right.

[Premium]

Originally Posted by wrholt

I don't think this statement is completely correct.

Human male:
a. Vi a Juan -> le vi. = I saw John -> I saw him
b. Vi al bueno -> le vi. = I saw the good one (male person) -> I saw him.

Non-human masculine noun:
Vi un lápiz -> lo ví. = I saw a pencil -> I saw it.
Vi el bueno -> lo vi. = I saw the good one (thing) -> I saw it.

Neuter:
Vi lo bueno -> lo vi. = I saw the good (abstract noun derived from adjective) -> I saw it.

"Le" - masculine/feminine - indirect objective - dative.
"La" - feminine - indirect objective - accusative.
"Le" - masculine - indirect objective - accusative.
Finally, "Lo" - neutral. Like "Me lo ofrecieron" or "Lo acepté".

This is it according to my grammar book.

Sorrt multi-quote doesn't work on my phone.

@chileno

To the last sentence. I don't think it's commonly used in Spain.

[Perikles]

Originally Posted by Premium

"Le" - masculine/feminine - indirect objective - dative.
"La" - feminine - indirect objective - accusative.
"Le" - masculine - indirect objective - accusative.
Finally, "Lo" - neutral. Like "Me lo ofrecieron" or "Lo acepté".

This is it according to my grammar book. .

Well, first, if you are going to name the cases, then a direct object is always accusative and indirect dative, although this is a question of terminology.

Secondly, my grammar book gives lo as the masculine direct object, 'a system regarded by many as standard'. It then goes on to say there is a lot of variation: lo(s) and la(s) often replaced by le(s) when referring to people, known as leísmo. Conversely, in South America, there is a loísmo using lo and la instead of le.

Since we seem to have a mixture, and preponderance of the latter on this forum**, you will not get a decisive answer. All very annoying.

**That's why I respond to your questions first, because everybody else is still asleep.

[AngelicaDeAlquezar]

@Perikles: No pasa nada.
But the decisive answer will have to be the choice of the learners: either they decide to stick to the right grammar or learn the usage from the region where they're learning the most.

I wouldn't worry much about this issue; even when using the "right" pronouns in the "wrong" regions, people will still understand and many even will reflect on the fact that they might be using them wrongly.

[aleCcowaN]

Originally Posted by Premium

"
"Le" - masculine - indirect objective - accusative.

Leísmo tolerado. Propio de áreas leístas, como la Meseta Central española.