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So it was perfect

 

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  #1  
Old September 27, 2023, 11:25 AM
Tyrn Tyrn is offline
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So it was perfect

Hi,

Original:

George Chizmar had also done the floor plan, so it was perfect.


Translation:

George Chizmar también había dibujado el plano, de modo que era perfecto.


The English original suggests that the plan was perfect because George Chizmar's plans are always perfect. Or most of the time. I can't see the same shade of meaning in the Spanish translation. Am I right?
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  #2  
Old October 02, 2023, 09:04 PM
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AngelicaDeAlquezar AngelicaDeAlquezar is offline
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It's all about context.
I don't know if it's my Spanish in the background, but "it was perfect", for me, may be the situation (the fact that a talented person drew the plan) or the plan itself, just like in Spanish.
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  #3  
Old October 02, 2023, 10:08 PM
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Rusty Rusty is offline
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It could be as stated by Angelica, which was also my first thought, but in other contexts it could have other meanings, like 'meant to be' or 'picture perfect' or 'a perfect complement'. If stumbling on the plan designer was a fortunate discovery, it could be called 'serendipitous' (a perfect unplanned sequence of events or a fortunate accident).
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Old October 05, 2023, 11:20 AM
elchocoano elchocoano is offline
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Please correct me if I'm way off on this. I'm recalling something about the use of the indicative versus the subjunctive after certain conjunctions with que, such as aunque.



When I read the question I thought that it was about the Spanish translation.
The assumption was that if Chizmar had done the floor plan then it was perfect, because it was well-known that his floor plans were always perfect.


Does the Spanish translation have the same meaning?


I'm wondering if this might have something to do with the Spanish translator choosing the indicative and not the subjunctive after de modo que.



de modo que era: would that mean that there could be no doubt that the floor plan was perfect?


de modo que fuera/fuese: would that mean that this was a subjective judgement on the part of the narrator?


That is, the Spanish translator had the choice of using era or fuera/fuese, and chose era because there could be no doubt.
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Old October 05, 2023, 11:55 AM
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Rusty Rusty is offline
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If it signals 'so/as a consequence' («así que, como consecuencia»), use the indicative.

If «de modo que» is signaling 'purpose/objective' («para que, con el fin de que»), use the subjunctive.
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Old October 05, 2023, 12:00 PM
elchocoano elchocoano is offline
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Ok, thanks. I was thinking of aunque and incorrectly assuming the same contrast might apply to de modo que.
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  #7  
Old October 05, 2023, 10:48 PM
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AngelicaDeAlquezar AngelicaDeAlquezar is offline
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If you say "aunque fuera perfecto", you're mean that the plan was perfect despite the fact that it was this person who drew it.

I agree with Rusty: if you mean that it was because this person made the plan it was perfect, then you say "era", but if he created it in order to be perfect, then it's "fuera".

- George Chizmar también había dibujado el plano de modo que fuera perfecto. -> He wanted it to be perfect.
- George Chizmar también había dibujado el plano, de modo que era perfecto. -> It turned out perfect.
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