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Molestar

 

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  #1  
Old January 08, 2014, 10:55 AM
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Molestar

¿Cómo se dice...?

"It didn't annoy me that she came"

"No me molestaba que vinó" o es con el subjuntivo "viniera"

"It annoyed me the she came"

"Me molestaba que vinó" o es con el subuntivo "viniera"
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  #2  
Old January 08, 2014, 11:06 AM
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No me molestaba que viniera.
Me molestaba que viniera.

Both take the subjunctive in this case.

There's no accent mark in the word 'vino', by the way.
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  #3  
Old January 08, 2014, 03:41 PM
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I'd like to add to Rusty's right answer that the imperfect should only be used if this was a repeated situation in the past; but if this was a one time ocassion, then the main verb should be in preterite: "(No) me molestó". In this case, although the second verb can be the imperfect subjunctive ("que viniera"), it may sound better in the perfect subjunctive: "...que haya venido".
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  #4  
Old January 08, 2014, 07:35 PM
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would it be incorrect to say: Me molestan los días frios? or
If it is OK, then would you say: Me molesta cuando hables o hablas así.
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  #5  
Old January 08, 2014, 07:48 PM
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Me molesta cuando hablas así.
Me molesta si hablas así.
Me molesta que hables así.

Me molestan los días fríos.
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  #6  
Old January 08, 2014, 08:31 PM
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Thank you.
Usually Spanish is logical. Is there a reason why que is followed by the subjunctive and cuando is followed by the indicative?
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  #7  
Old January 08, 2014, 08:49 PM
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You're dealing with a feeling, so this triggers the subjunctive in a noun clause.

'Cuando' isn't introducing a noun clause. It's introducing an adverbial clause. Therefore, the indicative is used. If the adverbial clause speaks of a future event, however, the subjunctive would be used.

The indicative mood is always used in a 'si' clause.
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Old January 08, 2014, 09:05 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Rusty View Post
You're dealing with a feeling, so this triggers the subjunctive in a noun clause.

'Cuando' isn't introducing a noun clause. It's introducing an adverbial clause. Therefore, the indicative is used. If the adverbial clause speaks of a future event, however, the subjunctive would be used.

The indicative mood is always used in a 'si' clause.
I think I understand. Please correct me if I'm wrong: Me alegre cuando estés bien. (I'll be happy when you're well--an adverbial indicating a future event.)
I believe the si clause can be subjunctive if the imperfect subjunctive is used. (Yo estaría feliz si estuvieras bien.)
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Old January 08, 2014, 09:26 PM
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Me alegraré cuando estés bien.

Yes, if the conditional tense is used in the main clause, the 'si' clause will contain a verb in the imperfect subjunctive.

The present subjunctive is not used in a 'si' clause.
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