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Past participle/estar/ser

 

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  #1  
Old February 26, 2009, 10:07 AM
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Past participle/estar/ser

Are any of the following correct?

The roses are planted in front of the fence.
Las rosas son plantadas delante de la cerca.
Las rosas están plantadas delante de la cerca.

The roses are planted in front.
Las rosas son plantadas por delante.
Las rosas están plantadas por delante.
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  #2  
Old February 26, 2009, 10:20 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by cmon View Post
Are any of the following correct?

The roses are planted in front of the fence.
Las rosas son plantadas delante de la cerca.
Las rosas están plantadas delante de la cerca.

The roses are planted in front.
Las rosas son plantadas por delante.
Las rosas están plantadas por delante.
Yes. (In my non grammar way) :-)

Consider this.

The roses are planted in front of the fence.

Would this mean in English that:

The roses have to be planted in front of the fence?

The roses are actually in the spot defined by the front of the fence?

The forms are correct, from my usage point of view.
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Old February 26, 2009, 10:22 AM
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Okay - so they're all correct. But what is the nuance in difference between the "ser" and the "estar" sentences?
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Old February 26, 2009, 11:31 AM
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"Están plantadas" would be correct to say where they have been planted.

"Son plantadas" is passive voice; in this case it would mean they are being planted at that moment.

Or you'd need a complement (and it's still present tense):
"Las rosas son plantadas por el jardinero"
"The roses are planted by the gardener"
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Last edited by AngelicaDeAlquezar; February 26, 2009 at 11:34 AM.
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Old February 26, 2009, 02:42 PM
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Psst - don't tell Hernan, but after I have done some more work with "para" y "por", I'm going to work on "ser" y "estar".
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Old February 26, 2009, 05:57 PM
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Special thanks to laepelba for asking about ser/estar difference. That is what I really wanted to know, but I forgot to ask.
Does Se plantan las rosas have the same meaning as Las rosas son plantadas?
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  #7  
Old February 26, 2009, 07:22 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by cmon View Post
Does Se plantan las rosas have the same meaning as Las rosas son plantadas?
Yes! The latter is the passive voice, as Angelica said. Be careful. The passive voice is not as common in spoken Spanish as it is in English and it tends to get overrused by English speakers.
Using the 'passive se' (se plantan) construct is much more popular in everyday speech. Using a reflexive verb, followed by the subject, doesn't immediately make sense to the beginner, but it sounds very natural to the Spanish speaker.
For example:
Se habla español (literally, Spanish speaks itself)
= Spanish is spoken (here)
Se venden flores (literally, flowers sell themselves)
= Flowers are sold (here)
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Old March 01, 2009, 11:47 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by laepelba View Post
Psst - don't tell Hernan, but after I have done some more work with "para" y "por", I'm going to work on "ser" y "estar".
Aha! I am gone for a couple of days and this is what I get. :-)

I saw you are more proficient at para/por.
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  #9  
Old March 01, 2009, 01:26 PM
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Originally Posted by laepelba View Post
Psst - don't tell Hernan, but after I have done some more work with "para" y "por", I'm going to work on "ser" y "estar".
Or maybe I'll work on pronouns..........
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  #10  
Old March 01, 2009, 03:36 PM
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Or maybe I'll work on pronouns..........
Do you eat those?
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