Object Pronouns

[TJtacos]

This is a tough subject for me. Although I think I am getting the hang of it.

help me with this sentence please.

We need to turn you (the patient) to the side so that you don’t get bedsores.

Necesitamos voltearlo/la a un lado para que no le salgan llagas

Necesitamos voltearlo/la - the patient is the direct object (the whom or what is bieng turned)

para que no le salgan llagas - here the patient is the indirect object and the llagas are the direct object.

how about -
We are going to take you home.
Vamos a llevarlo/la a su casa. the patient is the DO (the whom or what is being taken) is this correct?
if this is correct, why do I hear so many people say
vamos a llevarle a su casa?

[Rusty]

Object pronouns can be stumbling block.

The object pronouns fall into two categories; they are either taking the place of a direct object or an indirect object.

A direct object is the direct recipient of the verb's action. It answers the question WHAT or WHO receives the action of the verb. The direct object in each sentence below is highlighted in violet.

I see a book. WHAT do I see? A book.
I see Mary. WHO do I see? Mary.

If pronouns replace the objects in these sentences, the same questions can still be asked.

I see it. WHAT do I see? It.
I see her. WHO do I see? Her.

Direct object pronouns, then, totally replace the direct object and must match its number and gender. A sure-fire way to tell if you have a direct object or not is to switch the sentence into a passive voice. If it works, you've got a direct object. If it sounds absurd, you have an indirect object.
For example:
I wrote a letter. = A letter was written by me.
I wrote Mary. = Mary was written by me. Mary is NOT a direct object.
I wrote Mary a letter. = A letter was written by me for Mary. Mary is an indirect recipient of the action.

In Spanish, the direct object pronouns are:

me te lo* / la

nos os los* / las

* In Spain, the masculine 3rd-person lo and los are often said le and les when the object refers to a male person.

Now, let's look at the sentences in Spanish:

Veo un libro. (I see a book.) ¿QUÉ veo? Un libro.
Lo veo. (I see it.)
Veo a María. (I see Mary.) ¿QUIÉN veo? A María.
La veo. (I see her.)


An indirect object indirectly receives the verb's action. It answers the question TO WHAT or TO WHOM. The indirect object in the sentence below is highlighted in blue. There is also a direct object, highlighted in violet.

I took Mary a book. WHAT did I take? A book. TO WHOM did I take it? Mary.

If pronouns replace the objects in these sentences, the same questions can still be asked.

I took it to her. WHAT did I take? It. To WHOM did I take it? Her.

Indirect object pronouns totally replace the indirect object and must match its number and gender. As mentioned above, an indirect object fails the passive voice test.

In Spanish, the indirect object pronouns are:

me te le / se*

nos os les / se*

* If both an indirect and a direct object pronoun are present, the indirect object pronoun, which always precedes the direct object pronoun, is changed to se.

Now, let's look at the sentences in Spanish:

Llevé un libro a María. (I took Mary a book.) ¿QUÉ llevé? Un libro. ¿A QUIÉN lo llevé? A María.
Se lo llevé a ella. (I took it to her.)

The indirect object pronoun precedes the direct object pronoun (when both are present). Se is used because both pronouns are present (it's really because it sounds bad to say le lo). The phrase a ella is there to clarify the ambiguous 3rd-person indirect object pronoun.


Given this information, can you answer your own question? If not, ask more questions.

[poli]

Originally Posted by Rusty

Object pronouns can be stumbling block.

The object pronouns fall into two categories; they are either taking the place of a direct object or an indirect object.

A direct object is the direct recipient of the verb's action. It answers the question WHAT or WHO receives the action of the verb. The direct object in each sentence below is highlighted in violet.

I see a book. WHAT do I see? A book.
I see Mary. WHO do I see? Mary.

If pronouns replace the objects in these sentences, the same questions can still be asked.

I see it. WHAT do I see? It.
I see her. WHO do I see? Her.

Direct object pronouns, then, totally replace the direct object and must match its number and gender. A sure-fire way to tell if you have a direct object or not is to switch the sentence into a passive voice. If it works, you've got a direct object. If it sounds absurd, you have an indirect object.
For example:
I wrote a letter. = A letter was written by me.
I wrote Mary. = Mary was written by me. Mary is NOT a direct object.
I wrote Mary a letter. = A letter was written by me for Mary. Mary is an indirect recipient of the action.

In Spanish, the direct object pronouns are:
* In Spain, the masculine 3rd-person lo and los are often said le and les when the object refers to a male person.

Now, let's look at the sentences in Spanish:

Veo un libro. (I see a book.) ¿QUÉ veo? Un libro.
Lo veo. (I see it.)
Veo a María. (I see Mary.) ¿QUIÉN veo? A María.
La veo. (I see her.)


An indirect object indirectly receives the verb's action. It answers the question TO WHAT or TO WHOM. The indirect object in the sentence below is highlighted in blue. There is also a direct object, highlighted in violet.

I took Mary a book. WHAT did I take? A book. TO WHOM did I take it? Mary.

If pronouns replace the objects in these sentences, the same questions can still be asked.

I took it to her. WHAT did I take? It. To WHOM did I take it? Her.

Indirect object pronouns totally replace the indirect object and must match its number and gender. As mentioned above, an indirect object fails the passive voice test.

In Spanish, the indirect object pronouns are:
* If both an indirect and a direct object pronoun are present, the indirect object pronoun, which always precedes the direct object pronoun, is changed to se.

Now, let's look at the sentences in Spanish:

Llevé un libro a María. (I took Mary a book.) ¿QUÉ llevé? Un libro. ¿A QUIÉN lo llevé? A María.
Se lo llevé a ella. (I took it to her.)

The indirect object pronoun precedes the direct object pronoun (when both are present). Se is used because both pronouns are present (it's really because it sounds bad to say le lo). The phrase a ella is there to clarify the ambiguous 3rd-person indirect object pronoun.


Given this information, can you answer your own question? If not, ask more questions.

This is a perfect explanation. Learn it, and you will be on the road to mastering Spanish.

[Jessica]

Originally Posted by Rusty

Object pronouns can be stumbling block.

The object pronouns fall into two categories; they are either taking the place of a direct object or an indirect object.

A direct object is the direct recipient of the verb's action. It answers the question WHAT or WHO receives the action of the verb. The direct object in each sentence below is highlighted in violet.

I see a book. WHAT do I see? A book.
I see Mary. WHO do I see? Mary.

If pronouns replace the objects in these sentences, the same questions can still be asked.

I see it. WHAT do I see? It.
I see her. WHO do I see? Her.

Direct object pronouns, then, totally replace the direct object and must match its number and gender. A sure-fire way to tell if you have a direct object or not is to switch the sentence into a passive voice. If it works, you've got a direct object. If it sounds absurd, you have an indirect object.
For example:
I wrote a letter. = A letter was written by me.
I wrote Mary. = Mary was written by me. Mary is NOT a direct object.
I wrote Mary a letter. = A letter was written by me for Mary. Mary is an indirect recipient of the action.

In Spanish, the direct object pronouns are:
* In Spain, the masculine 3rd-person lo and los are often said le and les when the object refers to a male person.

Now, let's look at the sentences in Spanish:

Veo un libro. (I see a book.) ¿QUÉ veo? Un libro.
Lo veo. (I see it.)
Veo a María. (I see Mary.) ¿QUIÉN veo? A María.
La veo. (I see her.)


An indirect object indirectly receives the verb's action. It answers the question TO WHAT or TO WHOM. The indirect object in the sentence below is highlighted in blue. There is also a direct object, highlighted in violet.

I took Mary a book. WHAT did I take? A book. TO WHOM did I take it? Mary.

If pronouns replace the objects in these sentences, the same questions can still be asked.

I took it to her. WHAT did I take? It. To WHOM did I take it? Her.

Indirect object pronouns totally replace the indirect object and must match its number and gender. As mentioned above, an indirect object fails the passive voice test.

In Spanish, the indirect object pronouns are:
* If both an indirect and a direct object pronoun are present, the indirect object pronoun, which always precedes the direct object pronoun, is changed to se.

Now, let's look at the sentences in Spanish:

Llevé un libro a María. (I took Mary a book.) ¿QUÉ llevé? Un libro. ¿A QUIÉN lo llevé? A María.
Se lo llevé a ella. (I took it to her.)

The indirect object pronoun precedes the direct object pronoun (when both are present). Se is used because both pronouns are present (it's really because it sounds bad to say le lo). The phrase a ella is there to clarify the ambiguous 3rd-person indirect object pronoun.


Given this information, can you answer your own question? If not, ask more questions.

Coincidence, we were learning about direct objects and indirect in both English class and Spanish class. This is great help for me to review!!

[Vikingo]

Originally Posted by TJtacos

We are going to take you home.
Vamos a llevarlo/la a su casa. the patient is the DO (the whom or what is being taken) is this correct?
if this is correct, why do I hear so many people say
vamos a llevarle a su casa?

Hi TJtacos!

The patient is the DO, that's right.

Regarding "vamos a llevarle a su casa", it's a case of leísmo, in this case le is used as the direct object pronoun when we're addressing usted.

This phenomenon is used extensively in many parts of the Spanish-speaking world. In part it's a kind of courtesy, but it can also make it easier to distinguish between "you" and "him/her". It's also used when talking to women, but apparently to a lesser degree.

The leísmo has many shapes and forms, by the way. This particular variant is one of those that also have been deemed acceptable by the RAE, if you care about such things.

Take care

[María José]

In Madrid we are famous for our misuse of object pronouns. When I lived in Castilla La Mancha people corrected me all the time. I think I don't make mistakes any more...
Here you will hear things such us: Dila que venga instead of dile que venga

[poli]

The substitution of le for la looks like an attempt to correct a natural fault in the language, which if you're not careful, can be ambiguous. I think Spanish has less of these faults than other languages. For being a mega-language, Spanish is rather modern. I believe it was first put into written words only about 500 years ago. Prior to that, Castillian was not the official language of Spain (I think Latin and Arabic were).

A linguist Antonio de Nebrija put together a fairly streamlined, very logical and generally easy-to-spell official language that he presented to the Spanish monarchy. Unfortunately he did not include gender- specific indirect-object pronouns. Nobody's perfect. Castillian is kind of like a 16th century Esperanto that managed to stick. He probably would approved of leism if he were alive today.

[irmamar]

En algunos casos, el leísmo masculino singular está aceptado por la RAE. You can see it in the following link:

http://buscon.rae.es/dpdI/SrvltConsu...a=le%C3%ADsmmo