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Reflexive pronoun confusion


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Old July 20, 2018, 05:34 PM
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Reflexive pronoun confusion

My general understanding for sentences using reflexive pronouns is that the verb refers to the person/thing performing the action, while the pronoun refers to the person/thing that the action is directed towards. Ex:

1. Te amo.

'amo' indicates the person initiating the action (yo), while 'Te' indicates the person whom the action is directed towards (tu).

2. Me hablas.

'hablas' indicates the person who is talking (tu), 'Me' indicates the person who is being talked to (yo).

However, it seems like sentences using some form of 'gustar' often don't follow this. For example:

3. Me gusta la sopa.

Here, the verb 'gustar' isn't conjugated by the person doing the liking (yo), but rather by the object the action is being directed toward (la sopa).

Can someone explain why the last example is different? Thank you.
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Old July 20, 2018, 06:36 PM
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Rusty Rusty is offline
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Actually, no reflexive pronouns are being used in the examples you wrote.
In the first two cases, they are direct object pronouns.

The verb gustar is different. The thing that is liked in English is the subject in Spanish (and it is often said after the verb). Whom it pleases is the indirect object. This verb is explained in great detail in other threads (search on gustar).
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