Gustar + infinitive

[laepelba]

Me gusta caminar y cocinar. (I just read a sentence like this.)

Why isn't it Me gustan caminar y cocinar.

Thanks!

[Perikles]

It's of no help to you, but I think it's a good question.

[AngelicaDeAlquezar]

Let me think of something better, but although infinitives could well play the role of nouns, in this case the idea is centered in what I like, not in the fact they're two activities...

[laepelba]

Okay, so could I also say the following? Me gusta mi pais y mi ciudad. - or would it be "gustan" there?

[AngelicaDeAlquezar]

"Gusta" is right there. "Me gustan" would make the sentence sound strange. (At least for Mexican ears).

Hard to explain, sorry.
I think there are some cases, when nouns are used in singular we tend to use "me gusta", and when the nouns are plural we use "me gustan".


Me gusta ese perro y este gato.
Me gustan los perros y los gatos.

Me gusta la televisión y el cine.
Me gustan las películas.

Me gusta estar en casa y tejer.
Me gustan las actividades en casa.

[laepelba]

Maybe it's about the proximity to the verb?

Me gustan las películas y la televisión.
Me gusta la televisión y las películas.

[AngelicaDeAlquezar]

Hmmm... I have asked some people around and they prefer "me gustan la televisión y las películas", probably because of the explicit plural, even though it's not immediately after the verb. However, we are not bothered by "me gusta la televisión y las películas".

[Satyr]

I have a possible explanation!

It seems that...

Me gusta caminar y cocinar = Me gusta caminar y (me gusta) cocinar

y por eso, no se usa gustan aunque hay dos cosas

[irmamar]

Usually the subject in sentences with "gustar" is at the end of the sentence; however, many people think that the subject is a "complemento" (?). Verb must agree in person and number with the subject. Therefore:

Me gusta la tele ("tele" = subject, "gusta" = 3ª pers. sing.).
Me gustan los pájaros y los peces ("los pájaros y los peces" =suj.; "gustan" = 3ª pers. pl.).

With one or more infinitives, singular is used. Satyr is right.

[Perikles]

Originally Posted by irmamar

Usually the subject in sentences with "gustar" is at the end of the sentence; however, many people think that the subject is a "complemento" (?) complement .

With one or more infinitives, singular is used. Satyr is right.

Not strictly logical though, is it? The infinitives are used as nouns, so there is no reason why the rule should change.