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Pretérito Perfecto vs. PretéritoThis is the place for questions about conjugations, verb tenses, adverbs, adjectives, word order, syntax and other grammar questions for English or Spanish. |
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Pretérito Perfecto vs. Pretérito
Cuando oigo gentes, que tienen Español como un idioma primero, noto que ellos frecuemente usan el construcción pretérito perfecto para ciertas palabras y frases. Por ejemplo, es muy normál que decir "Que has dicho?" en vez de "Que dijiste?" Hay una razón por esto? O son los dos iguales en esto caso?
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#2
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"Pretérito perfecto" has common and different uses depending on where the speaker comes from. If the speakers are Spaniards, by saying "¿Qué has dicho?" they mean something that happened recently or an action that just ended. In this side of the Atlantic it's uncommon in that meaning and we prefer "¿Qué acabas de decir?" or "¿Qué dijiste?". If I heard "¿¡Qué has dicho!?" I'd think they are reproaching the other person.
Basic summary: Everywhere ---> "pretérito perfecto" meaning something happened -and completed- in the past but having consequences in the present: Examples: Mira cómo han podado esos árboles ¡Qué salvajes! Ha estado en la cárcel y sabe de lo que habla. [In América you may use "podaron" and "estuvo"] Spain ---> "pretérito perfecto" also meaning something happened recently or it happened but it's still happening: Son las cuatro de la tarde y aún no he almorzado. Ha salido hace unos minutos.
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#3
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In Latin America it's used more like the way it's used in English. When referring to an action that takes place several times or hasn't happened but will.
In Spain that tense is very commonly used to replace the preterite. I remember my Spanish teacher at school when she asked about one of my classmates that wasn't there and we said "No vino" and she corrected us, according to her it should be "no ha venido"- We didn't understand why, actually I still don't, in Latin America it means she hasn't come .. yet. But she will eventually. And that was not the case. Edit: Quote:
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