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Why is "pueden" being used in the first example here?

 

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Old April 21, 2022, 09:22 PM
createdamadman createdamadman is offline
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Why is "pueden" being used in the first example here?

I have this screenshot from Rosetta Stone:


https://i.lensdump.com/i/t05MV5.png


In all three examples, he is talking to one person, so I can't figure out why he says "pueden" in the first example. Are "puede" and "pueden" interchangeable with the impersonal use of "se" or is this just an error?
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Old April 21, 2022, 09:54 PM
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Rusty Rusty is offline
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The impersonal 'se' is always associated with a third person singular verb.

The third person plural can be used in the passive 'se' construction.
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