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Imperfect Subjunctive Or Indicative

 

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Old June 25, 2020, 06:00 AM
fglorca fglorca is offline
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Imperfect Subjunctive Or Indicative

1. El dependiente de la tienda salió después de que su jefe ‘contó’ el dinero.
2. El dependiente de la tienda salió después de que su jefe ‘había contado’ el dinero.
3. El dependiente de la tienda salió después de que su jefe ‘contara’ el dinero.

I have a Spanish friend who tells me that 1 is incorrect, and that 2 and 3 are correct, so I’m a little confused. I would have opted for either 1 or 2 (both correct), and I think 3 is incorrect. We are simply reporting what actually happened. There is no anticipation of what will or may happen as in these examples below:
• El dependiente de la tienda va a salir después de que su jefe ‘cuente’ el dinero.
• El dependiente de la tienda iba a salir después de que su jefe ‘contara’ el dinero.

Am I correct here, or am I way off?

Many thanks in advance.
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  #2  
Old June 25, 2020, 06:22 AM
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Rusty Rusty is offline
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In Spain, number 3 is correct.
Elsewhere, numbers 1 and 2 are used.
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Old June 25, 2020, 06:30 AM
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Here's a further explanation I found. Apparently in formal Spanish, there are places where the plu-perfect can be replaced with the imperfect subjunctive when it takes the form" ra" as opposed to the "se" form.
https://www.spanishdict.com/answers/...que-subjuntivo
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