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Articles in British vs American EnglishTalk about anything here, just keep it clean. |
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#21
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#22
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I often wonder how these differences come about. I assume that if the word has existed long enough to have been exported along with an English-speaking population to the USA, it is kind of strange that the word doesn't exist there.
I find that the noun burglary is first attested in 1532, burglar is first attested in 1541, from OFr burgier, pillage. But the verb to burgle only appears as late as 1872, a back-formation of burglar. The AmE burglarize is however attested in 1871. So whereas the root noun was exported to the USA, the verbs where invented differently and simultaneously, although the AmE has the edge! I confess that I find this quite interesting. |
#23
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Back to the North American English term to hospitalize. I am sure I have heard the Spanish equivalent hospitalizar and hospitalizado. Is the term international or New York Spanish?
Also a British English question: Do butlers butle?
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#24
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The OED does not list it as a verb, but I knew someone in the UK who used to be a butler, and he used it regularly in things like "I butled for the Duke of ... for 10 years". I imagine it would be buttled, if written.
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#25
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According to the etymology in one dictionary, "butler" entered into Middle English from Old French "bouteillier" = bottle-bearer, from "bouteille", "botele" = bottle. Which makes sense given that traditionally a butler is a head servant in charge of food service, care for the silverware, and the deportment of other servants...
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#26
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No, they buttle. http://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/buttle includes a few citations.
As a similar back-formation, ushers may be said to ush, although that seems to be less established in literature. |
#27
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Me ayuda si corrige mis errores. Gracias. |
#28
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They are common words here, but mainly in a formal language, e.g., in the news. I a standard conversation people would say "X ha estado en el hospital una semana" rather than "X ha estado hospitalizado una semana".
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#29
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I suspect the differences between British English and American English came about partially as a result of the language being affected by different forces in each place, and partially because Americans came up with their own spellings and grammar when those things were starting to be standardized, because America is a free spirit and independent, not bound by anyone else's rules and regulations! ;D Seriously, I do think Americans deciding to come up with their own rules and spellings was an important factor. I don't think distance from England had much of a role because English in Australia and New Zealand is very similar to British English, despite the two countries being much farther from England and harder to reach than America. Last edited by Rusty; September 01, 2012 at 10:54 PM. Reason: merged back-to-back posts |
#30
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Mmm...
Yeah, no wukkas, mate. (Just kidding, probably you are right, although the Aussies, South Africans... and Injuns, etc. have their "peculiarities" too!)
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