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  #1  
Old May 04, 2006, 11:32 AM
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Is this correct?

Is this sentence correct?

Me gusta latinas mujeres

or would it be:

Me gusta latina mujeres

or

Me gustas latinas mujeres

???
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  #2  
Old May 04, 2006, 11:37 AM
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Re: Is this correct?

It would be: Me gustan las mujeres latinas.

The verb gustar is a "backwards" verb. You will get it right if you think of it as meaning "to be pleasing to me" instead of "to like"

So:

Me gusta comer carne. I like to eat meat (It is pleasing to me to eat meat)
Me gustan las mujeres. I like women. (Women are pleasing to me)
(Tu) me gustas (a mí). I like you (You are pleasing to me)
Te gusto? Do you like me? (Am I pleasing to you?)

Hope that helps.
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  #3  
Old May 10, 2006, 03:54 AM
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Re: Is this correct?

Those backwards verbs are the ones that always get me. I can't seem to understand how they work but thanks fro the examples. 8)
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  #4  
Old May 10, 2006, 06:30 PM
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Re: Is this correct?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Nix
Those backwards verbs are the ones that always get me. I can't seem to understand how they work but thanks fro the examples. 8)
Do you think this would make a good topic for a quick tutorial?
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  #5  
Old May 10, 2006, 08:36 PM
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Re: Is this correct?

A tutorial would be very useful. I often get confused with that.
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  #6  
Old May 11, 2006, 12:18 AM
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Re: Is this correct?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Zach
A tutorial would be very useful. I often get confused with that.
Cool, I just wrote up a post covering when to use ser/estar, now I've got a couple more topics waiting to be written
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  #7  
Old May 11, 2006, 10:50 AM
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Re: Is this correct?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Tomisimo
Do you think this would make a good topic for a quick tutorial?
Definitely do write a tutorial on that if you have time man. That would help me out.
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