Why is a translation "not the same"

[Liquinn3]

Originally Posted by pjt33

This sounds translated. Nearly all native speakers would say Me llamo Silvia.


This also sounds translated. I don't think I've ever heard a native speaker talk about "a fluent English". "To speak English fluently" is far more natural.

Is the writer a native English or native Spanish/Catalan? Hmmmmm... the person sounds like his/her native language is Spanish and/or Catalan.

[Rusty]

The original author of the three blocks of text has a member ID that indicates she speaks Catalan. So, the other two are her translations.

This is why the Spanish version has the odd phrasing that ptj33 pointed out and doesn't mention that Silvia is from Spain. It also doesn't mention Silvia's age in the same spot. It's also missing the translation for 'per descomptat'.
The English version has the strange phrasing that ptj33 made mention of. It is also missing some articles and doesn't mention the course of study that the other two mention. The final statement doesn't include the 'Of course, it would be a pleasure' that the original does.

And 'Hola a tots' is also a translation. The original Catalan posting has 'Hola a tothom'.
This translation change might have occurred when the text was entered in the post in this thread.