Correct Usage of Manuel de Falla's Surname

[Sancho Panther]

I am fairly familiar with the day-to-day usage of 'y' and 'de' in the context of the maternal surname but there appears to be some confusion when the 'de' precedes the paternal apellido, as with 'de Falla'. On doing a bit of research regarding the composer I found some discrepancies in Spanish publications where reference was made employing only the apellido; some referred to him as "de Falla" (which I was always given to understand was correct) whilst other reputable Spanish sources referred to him just as "Falla".

Can some kind soul please give me the definitive correct usage of this minor controversy please?

[AngelicaDeAlquezar]

For me, "Falla" is wrong; his surname is "de Falla", both words.
I don't think I have ever seen anyone with that kind of family names referred to with only the "main" word in Spanish, but I have certainly seen that in English texts.

[Sancho Panther]

Originally Posted by AngelicaDeAlquezar

I don't think I have ever seen anyone with that kind of family names referred to with only the "main" word in Spanish, but I have certainly seen that in English texts.

My own experience and opinion precisely.

I think some English speakers get confused when they are taught to omit the 'de' preceding a married Spanish lady's husband's surname.

If you look up "Manuel de Falla" in "Wikipedia" and scroll down to 'References' the first referral is to a Spanish publication - "Falla by Manuel Orozco Diaz (Barcelona: Salvat, 1985)."!

What are we to make of that?

[aleCcowaN]

Originally Posted by Sancho Panther

What are we to make of that?

A ball and throw it in a basket

But it is the same mistake we do when we say Beethoven instead of van Beethoven.

Besides, with famous people there's some of a snobby trend to shortem their names as if one were acquainted with them: Webber instead of Lloyd Webber, and so on.

[Sancho Panther]

Lord Andrew Lloyd Webber - of whom it was once said "If beauty is skin-deep - his must be inside-out!"