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A King changed the pronunciation of Z and C?Questions about culture and cultural differences between countries and languages. |
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#11
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"King" se puede usar únicamente para monarcas varones.
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#12
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"Hubiera tenido" = "had had" in this context.
Example: : "If he had had the money, he would have bought the car; if he had bought the car, he would have had a vehicle that same day." "Si hubiera tenido el dinero, habría comprado el coche; si hubiera comprado el coche, habría tenido un vehículo el mismo día." (Igualmente, favor de corregir mi castellano)
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"Be brief, for no discourse can please when too long." miguel de cervantes saavedra Last edited by hermit; June 23, 2010 at 12:26 PM. |
#13
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There appear to be common dialects of en-us which use the conditional for the condition as well as the consequent; here the conditional perfect is unremarkable although in en-gb (and, judging from your reaction, en-ca) it would be the pluperfect.
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#14
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Quote:
Hello Hermit. I saw your post and I can see that everything is right. Only I set the phrase at its place. Greetings.
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We are building the most important dare for my life and my family feature now we are installing new services in telecoms. |
#15
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Gracias por sendas colaboraciones.
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Please, don't hesitate to correct my English. 'Time is a sort of river of passing events, and strong is its current; no sooner is a thing brought to sight than it is swept by and another takes its place, and this too will be swept away.' M.A.
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#16
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Quote:
And if I told you the kind of kings and queens we have had... |
#17
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Al revés.
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#18
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Quote:
Crystal clear, thank you very much
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Please, don't hesitate to correct my English. 'Time is a sort of river of passing events, and strong is its current; no sooner is a thing brought to sight than it is swept by and another takes its place, and this too will be swept away.' M.A.
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#19
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I've also heard the myth about the lisping king and been the butt of many a joke about sounding homosexual when speaking in the peninsular dialect. According to David Pharies in A Brief History of The Spanish Language, the myth is totally false. The z/c sounding like [th] was happening before Philip II came to power. Apparently it developed from several different sounds coming down through Latin and the early Romance Languages. Pharies also uses a lot of LaPesa's work in his book. It's a great read.
Going off of what Jpablo said about the different types of Spanish spoken in the Americas, I've heard a theory that says the first regions explored in the Americas, such as rivers, coasts, and islands, have a Spanish that closely resembles that of Andalucia where many of the explorers/sailors came from. However, the inland areas and capital cities have a Spanish that more closely resembles that of Madrid, since aristocrats and nobility were sent to run them and settlers from all parts of Spain came once the coastal/river areas were established. A lot of the Caribbean Spanish sounds an awful lot like Andalusian Spanish, just without the zeta [th] sound, but I haven't spoken with enough South American folks of different geographic areas to know if that theory of dialect development holds true. I can't cite specific examples, but I do feel like I've heard a little bit of the z/c [th] in a couple cases from Argentinians or Columbians a couple times, but that usage is very rare and probably only for specific words in specific instances... |
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