One can see many stars

[pacomartin123]

I am receiving advice on other forums that I don't think is correct.

The English phrase "One can see many stars" would be translated as:
"uno puede ver muchas estrellas".

But I am told that the following statement is incorrect:
(1) "se puede ver muchas estrellas"

It should actually be as follows (with plural verb):
(2) "se pueden ver muchas estrellas"

Is (1) acceptable? If not, why not?

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There is a similar issue in English, considering that we have no epicene singular pronoun.

If you ask "How should a student prepare his homework?" the proper response (using a pronoun) is one of the following:
(A) "One should prepare one's homework neatly"
(B) "He should prepare his homework neatly"
(C) "He or she should prepare his or her homework neatly" (awkward)

But many people will respond
(D) "They should prepare their homework neatly"

While (D) was once proper English more than 3 centuries ago, it is considered improper today. But it is so widely done, that some grammarians think that it will become the norm again.