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Why is the subjunctive used here?

 

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  #1  
Old June 09, 2020, 08:24 PM
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Why is the subjunctive used here?

Hola todos,

Can someone tell me why the subjunctive is used in the two sentences below?



¿Alguna vez has comido algo que te sentase mal?

¿Alguna vez has vista una película que te sentara mal?



Gracias.
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  #2  
Old June 10, 2020, 03:49 PM
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Sometimes the subjunctive in Spanish implies might or may, and this is a bit confusing for us English speakers, because we don't use the subjunctive that way. This uncertainty is expressed in these sentences, and I believe that is why the subjunctive is used here.
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Last edited by poli; June 10, 2020 at 07:48 PM.
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Old June 10, 2020, 05:16 PM
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As Poli says, the normal explanation of this that I've heard is that since I don't know if you've ever seen a movie you don't like (maybe you've always loved every movie you've ever seen), then I have to use the subjunctive to formulate that question, since it's an uncertainty or speculation. The use of the word "que" is another clue. It likes to be followed by the subjunctive.

I'm sure someone else can give a better explanation.
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Old June 10, 2020, 06:39 PM
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As mentioned, the subjunctive is used in the OP's sentences because there is uncertainty on the part of the framer of the question.
(The use of the conjunction 'que' is not an indicator that the clause which follows is drafted in the subjunctive mood. Whether the subjunctive is used or not is driven by what appears in the other clause.)

I wanted to point out that the past participle used to form the perfect tenses is invariable. It doesn't agree in gender or number with the subject. So, 'has visto' should have appeared in the second sentence instead of 'has vista'.
When the past participle is being used as an adjective (or predicate adjective), it then agrees in gender and number.

Last edited by Rusty; June 10, 2020 at 09:49 PM.
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Old June 11, 2020, 08:33 PM
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Poli, Tomisimo, and Rusty

Thanks for your responses. They're very helpful.

Slapping myself that I didn't know this. Now I get it.

Gracias.
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Old June 15, 2020, 04:18 PM
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Rusty is right that que is not an indicator that the subjunctive mood will follow. I do think that que can sometimes be thought of as perhaps a hint that you might have the subjunctive after it. (Or the opposite, that the subjuntive is often preceeded by que.) But that might not necessarily be all that helpful, so take it with a grain of salt.
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Old June 15, 2020, 11:08 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Tomisimo View Post
Rusty is right that que is not an indicator that the subjunctive mood will follow. I do think that que can sometimes be thought of as perhaps a hint that you might have the subjunctive after it. (Or the opposite, that the subjuntive is often preceeded by que.) But that might not necessarily be all that helpful, so take it with a grain of salt.
Your reminder is helpful.

´que` is often omitted after ´ojalá´ but I'll assume a large percentage of the subjuntive follow "que" but not always.


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Old June 22, 2020, 07:41 AM
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OK, folks.

Here's a new sentence. I don't know why the subjunctive is needed. The indicative is not allowed.

Why is this subjunctive? TIA.


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Old June 22, 2020, 08:30 AM
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hacer que, causar que, etc., take the subjunctive.
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Old June 22, 2020, 10:09 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Rusty View Post
hacer que, causar que, etc., take the subjunctive.
Muchas gracias, Rusty.
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