"Se Los Dije" ?

[deandddd]

Group Members,

Ahhhh! I was just watching an old dubbing re-run of El Llanero Solitario, and they threw me a curveball!

At time stamp 1:20, Kimosabe said"Ya se los dije".



I have heard of lo-ismo, but I have never really come across it.

My understanding is that if you construct with "se" in a person-to-person situation, you are using the indirect object construction, and that "a usted" at the end is implicit, even if not spoken. "Se les dije a ustedes" is what I was expecting, or shortened to "se les dije".

Is "se los dije" considered correct, or just a manner of speech that gets used?

Dean

[wrholt]

From a normative perspective, "se los dije" is almost always incorrect, but as a manner of speech some native speakers use it.

The "correct" expression is "se lo dije" = "I told it to him/her/them/you" where "lo" = "it" (neuter object pronoun referring to what I told, as a concept or idea rather than as a reference to a concrete noun) and "se" = "to him/her/them/you" (whom I told).

The normative way to disambiguate the intended meaning of "se" is to add "a él/ella/usted/ellos/ellas/ustedes". However, in contexts that do not require normative speech, some people will routinely say "se los dije", as if "se" refers to "it" = "what I told" and "los" refers to "you(plural)/them" = "whom I told".

[ROBINDESBOIS]

unless it refers to a plural noun. No me dijiste los secretos. Ya se los dije hace 3 semanas.