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Imperfect and Past Perfect Subjunctive

 

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Old May 24, 2010, 08:20 PM
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Imperfect and Past Perfect Subjunctive

Tengo una pregunta sobre el modo subjuntivo. ¿Por qué el past perfect y imperfect ambos tienen dos congugaciónes? ¿Es una mejor que la otra? Por ejemplo: guardara o guardase. He buscado en los libros pero no entiendo cuando usar uno o otro.
Gracias por la ayuda
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Old May 24, 2010, 11:14 PM
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You can use them.

When you need to explain something as the next examples.

He will keep the file down of the desktop.
El guardara the archivo debajo de el escritorio.

He would can keep the file down of the desktop.
El guardase el archivo debajo del escritorio.

These last example is only a supposition and it couldn't be the really.
In the last example could happen and it couldn't happen even.

I hope that my examples can help you.
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Old May 25, 2010, 03:33 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by LibraryLady View Post
Tengo una pregunta sobre el modo subjuntivo. ¿Por qué el past perfect y imperfect ambos tienen dos congugaciónes? ¿Es una mejor que la otra? Por ejemplo: guardara o guardase. He buscado en los libros pero no entiendo cuando usar uno o otro.
Gracias por la ayuda
The two forms are derived from the Latin imperfect subjunctive and pluperfect subjunctive, which have since evolved to mean the same, and are (generally) interchangeable: (feel free to contradict this, anybody!)

Latin cantarem ............ Spanish cantara
Latin canta(vi)ssem .... Spanish cantase

etc.

See here for infinite detail, including

Quote:
A remarkable feature of Castilian Spanish is the retention of two separate imperfect subjunctive forms (in -se and in -ra) for one function. The two forms in the standard language are stylistic variants, though the -ra form is preferred in some areas, especially in America, and in expressions of politeness (like quisiera 'I'd like').
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Old May 25, 2010, 05:58 AM
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I fully agree with Perikles. In Spain particularly, you can interchangeably use "guardara" or "guardase" with not problem. I noticed that some Latin American speakers, (particulary the Mexicans I know) consider the "guardase" form more "dated" or even "archaic", so they will use "guardara" and look at you as if you were from the 18th century if you come up with "guardase". So, if you want to be "en la onda" (in the loop) you would use the "-ara" form. (If you want to read some Spanish poetry, though, be ready to see the "-ase" form many times.)
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Old May 25, 2010, 06:43 AM
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Gracias a todos. Dudo que hubiera comprendido sin su ayuda.
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Old May 25, 2010, 11:14 AM
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I think that "-ara" suffix is more common, but you can use the "-ase,-ese" one to avoid a kind of redundance, so you make the sentence more fluent. For instance, look at the following sentences:

Me dijo que me guardara mi dinero, pero aunque hubiese querido (instead of hubiera querido) guardarlo, sé que no habría podido.

Por mucho que me pesara que él lo hiciese, tenía que aceptarlo.

Costara lo que costase, tenía que conseguirlo.

But if you don't change the suffix, they are correct too.
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Old May 25, 2010, 03:50 PM
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Gracias por los ejemplos. Son muy buenos! No sabía que puedo usar dos sufijos en una frase.
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