The use of lo in this sentence...

[mattmc1]

A general query about the construction of this sentence:

"El hombre está listo para trabajar, pero su mujer no lo está."

Why is the direct object pronoun 'lo' used in the sentence if the person who is not ready is female? Shouldn't it have been written:

"El hombre está listo para trabajar, pero su mujer no la está."

A Spanish friend told me that there are exceptions to the use of lo/la - in this particular case, lo is used because it's his wife that is not ready...

Can anyone clear this up for me?

Thanks,

Matt

[aleCcowaN]

Just a quick answer outside grammar (Somebody will explain better)

listo/lista have gender

but

"listo para trabajar"/"lista para trabajar" has no gender, it's an "it", the "it" that "lo" is referring.

The only difference between "listo para trabajar" and "lista para trabajar" is the first being an "it" related to a "he" and the second one being an "it" related to a "she". The fact that there's a "she" or a "he" as a component of that "it" doesn't make it less "it" than it is.

I hope this helps.

[chileno]

Right.

The man is ready to work, but his wife it is not.

[Perikles]

Yes, or

The man is [adjectival phrase], but the woman is not [it (referring to the previous adjectival phrase)]

[chileno]

That's right, talk to me in English.

In other words : adjectival phrase = is ready?

[Perikles]

Originally Posted by chileno

In other words : adjectival phrase = is ready?

No - the adjectival phrase is "listo para trabajar" (I think)

[mattmc1]

Thank you everyone - I think I understand - 'it', regardless of adjective gender, is always 'lo'?

Please correct me if this is not quite right...

Thanks,

Matt

[wrholt]

Originally Posted by mattmc1

Thank you everyone - I think I understand - 'it', regardless of adjective gender, is always 'lo'?

Please correct me if this is not quite right...

Thanks,

Matt

Approximately. The key in this sentence is that "lo" refers to "listo/lista para trabajar", which is not a noun, but an adjective, which has no inherent gender. When a phrase that is not a noun (typically an adjective phrase, a clause or a sentence) is nominalized (converted to a noun, treated as a noun, or referenced as if it were a noun), it is assigned to the neuter gender: definite article lo, demonstrative adjectives/pronouns esto, eso or aquello, relative pronoun lo que, and so on. Whenever there is no distinct neuter form, the neuter form is identical to the masculine form; in the case of direct object pronouns as in your sentence, the pronoun is "lo".

[pia]

Further question.

El hombre está listo para trabajar, pero su mujer no lo está
Noun - El hombre
Verb - está
listo - direct object pronoun
para trabajar - indirect object pronoun

so shouldnt the sentence correctly be

El hombre está listo para trabajar, pero su mujer no se lo está

[Perikles]

Originally Posted by pia

so shouldnt the sentence correctly be

El hombre está listo para trabajar, pero su mujer no se lo está

I don't think so - what function does the se have?