Ask a Question(Create a thread) |
|
Why both correct? Indicative & Imp SubjThis is the place for questions about conjugations, verb tenses, adverbs, adjectives, word order, syntax and other grammar questions for English or Spanish. |
|
Thread Tools | Display Modes |
#1
|
||||
|
||||
Why both correct? Indicative & Imp Subj
Today my Spanish teacher from Mexico and I were talking about corn tortillas and naturally made ones being healthier than the processed ones outside of MX and places far away.
The processed corn tortillas (or say, any processed foods) No están saludable como pareciera She also said using the indicative is also OK. No están saludable como parece. I asked why but she's not into these matters. If the subjunctive is OK, why not the present subjuntive? How does using the indicative and subjunctive change the meaning? Thanks, if anyone can answer. |
Get rid of these ads by registering for a free Tomísimo account.
|
#2
|
||||
|
||||
The sentence should be "No son tan saludables como parecen."
The indicative mood is warranted; the subject matter is real. There's no hint of doubt, denial, disbelief, probability, desire, or strong emotion. I don't see why the subjunctive would be warranted in such a statement. Usually, the imperfect subjunctive is warranted only when a past tense or a conditional mood verb appears in the main clause. Last edited by Rusty; December 26, 2019 at 11:34 AM. |
#3
|
||||
|
||||
Might the difference between the two be:not as healthy as they seem/not as healthy as they may seem?
__________________
Me ayuda si corrige mis errores. Gracias. |
#4
|
||||
|
||||
I think it just depends on what the speaker has in mind:
- No son tan sanas como parece. They're not as healthy as it seems. -> The speaker is certain that I think they are healthy, so they state a warning that this is a wrong idea. - No son tan sanas como pareciera. They aren't as healthy as it may seem. -> The speaker is more cautious or may not be certain I think they're healthy. Side note: In principle I agree with Rusty on using "parecen"/"parecieran", for the sake of the agreement with the subject. Yet, I'm keeping "parece" and "pareciera", because the speaker may have in mind the situation rather than the tortillas themselves, so it's a valid construction for me.
__________________
♪ ♫ ♪ Ain't it wonderful to be alive when the Rock'n'Roll plays... ♪ ♫ ♪ |
#5
|
||||
|
||||
Based on Angelica's explication and side note, and revisiting the original post, it just dawned on me that 'están' should have been 'es tan' in the OP's sentence. And, since that introduces a singular subject, the statement is about the situation rather than the tortillas.
No es tan saludable/sana como parece/pareciera. I'm also aware that the imperfect subjunctive can be used with a present tense main verb in certain situations. When used this way, 'may seem' in the English translation could also be 'may have seemed' or 'might seem' ('might' being used as the past tense of 'may'). |
#6
|
||||
|
||||
Thanks for all of your replies.
She's not a certified teacher but a very avid reader and very knowledgeable. Interesting she didn't use "ser --> son" or "tan" but instead used "estar." But I recall a teacher telling me that with food: estar is the taste ser is the quality - therefore "ser" or as Rusty noted "tan" should be used. Thanks again. |
Link to this thread | |
|
|
Similar Threads | ||||
Thread | Thread Starter | Forum | Replies | Last Post |
Grammar question: why present subj? | Aprendo | Grammar | 3 | November 19, 2018 03:53 AM |
Verbs that change meaning between Pret. & Imp. | ducviloxi | Grammar | 5 | August 04, 2012 05:28 AM |
Es posible que...pres or imp subjunctive/infinitive | Sunflower | Grammar | 11 | April 17, 2012 04:26 PM |
Spanish Estar vs ser / Pred vs imp & subjunctive | BlueOcean | Practice & Homework | 13 | January 21, 2009 08:58 PM |
Hi, i need link to site with subj about weight loss | FatTonny | General Chat | 3 | October 06, 2006 09:38 AM |