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  #1  
Old May 06, 2019, 05:48 AM
fglorca fglorca is offline
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Leísmo

Assuming that my object pronouns all refer to people below, are my sentences correct?

Am I correct in saying that only 1 and 3 allow for 'leísmo' to take place?
  1. I love him: Lo quiero / Le quiero
  2. I love her: La quiero / La quiero
  3. I love them (all male): Los quiero / Les quiero
  4. I love them (mixed gender): Los quiero / Los quiero
  5. I love them (all female): Las quiero / Las quiero

Many thanks in advance.
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  #2  
Old May 06, 2019, 11:22 AM
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Tomisimo Tomisimo is offline
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I believe that is correct, but I'm not very familiar with leísmo in practical usage. Remember to only use it in areas where leísmo is common.
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Old May 06, 2019, 04:27 PM
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AngelicaDeAlquezar AngelicaDeAlquezar is offline
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According to the RAE, "leísmo" is accepted when the direct object is a man. ("Le quiero".)
When it's a plural --"les quiero"-- its use is advised against, and it's considered plain incorrect when it's an inanimate object.

When it's a woman, "le" is accepted in impersonal sentences --"a mi abuela se le quería mucho en el pueblo".

There is also a "leísmo de cortesía", which is used for people to whom you call "usted":
"Disculpe, no le había visto; ¿le puedo atender?"
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Old May 12, 2019, 12:23 PM
fglorca fglorca is offline
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Many thanks, guys.
With the "leísmo de cortesía", does the same rule apply to the plural form?

Examples:
Encantado de conocerlo. (male)
Encantado de conocerla. (female)
Encantado de conocerle. (male or female, or is it just male?)
Encantado de conocerlos. (male, plural)
Encantado de conocerlas. (female, plural)
Encantado de conocerles. (male or female, or is it just male?)
I have heard this last one used quite a lot for mixed gender...
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Old May 12, 2019, 03:38 PM
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If I understand well, when it's "leísmo de cortesía", it doesn't matter if they're males or females, the only thing one needs is that you would address them as "ustedes".
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