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Why is gusta singular

 

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Old May 11, 2012, 12:49 PM
pacomartin123 pacomartin123 is offline
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Why is gusta singular



tacos and margaritas is plural. Why isn't it gustan?
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Old May 11, 2012, 02:11 PM
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wrholt wrholt is offline
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1. The ad is bilingual; the only thing in Spanish is the phrase "me gusta".
2. In this context, one can think of the situation (having inexpensive food and drink) as the subject, and the situation is naturally singular.
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Old May 11, 2012, 02:56 PM
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aleCcowaN aleCcowaN is offline
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Exactly!

Tacos and margaritas, just 99 cents? I like that / I like that woman (Me gusta [eso/esa])

That's probably how the add is brain read.

"Me gusta" is no intended to "tacos and margaritas" but to get each of them at such a price.
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