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Mandar vs Enviar

 

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  #1  
Old January 03, 2012, 06:12 AM
southUS southUS is offline
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Mandar vs Enviar

Is it okay to use either of these words in the same way? From my understanding, they both mean "to send" as in "Podrias porfavor madarme la factura?" or "Podrias porfavor enviarme la factura?"

Is one more polite? Are there better times to use one vs the other?

Thank you,
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  #2  
Old January 03, 2012, 07:56 AM
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chileno chileno is offline
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Both are equally correct. But I don't know why in my mind "enviar" sounds more proper.
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Old January 03, 2012, 03:40 PM
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"Mandar" also means to "to order" someone somehing. For example: Le gusta mandar - He likes giving orders.
Or: Tú no mandas aquí - You are not the one giving orders here.

That is why it sounds better to say "enviar" more polite. Both are correct.
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Old January 07, 2012, 01:03 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by jrivera View Post
"Mandar" also means to "to order" someone somehing. For example: Le gusta mandar - He likes giving orders.
Or: Tú no mandas aquí - You are not the one giving orders here.

That is why it sounds better to say "enviar" more polite. Both are correct.

So does "mandar" mean to give orders and not to order something? I ask because I thought "pedir" was to order something such as food or a product.

I will try and remember "enviar", but I can't remember anyone at work using it before. Is that word used more commonly in some countries over other? Thanks everyone.
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Old January 07, 2012, 01:51 PM
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To order something, like in a restaurant or some home delivery, can be "pedir" or "ordenar". "Mandar"/"enviar" can be used for the action of sending the order to the table from the kitchen or when delivery is being sent:

--¿Ya pediste/ordenaste la pizza? (Have you already ordered the pizza?)
--Sí, me dijeron que la mandan/envían en diez minutos. (Yes, I was told it will be sent in ten minutes.)


(The chef to his helper in the kitchen of a restaurant)
--En una mesa ordenaron/pidieron más tortillas. Mándaselas/envíaselas bien calientes. (There's a table where they ordered more tortillas. Send them very hot.)



The use of "mandar" as to give orders:
-Mi mamá me mandó comprar unas frutas al mercado. (Mom made me go to buy some fruits to the market.)
-Mandé a Juan que arreglara el techo. (I ordered Juan to fix the roof.)
-Manda que arreglen tus zapatos a arreglar; ya están rotos. (Make your shoes be fixed, they're already broken.)
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Old January 07, 2012, 01:53 PM
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Got it! Thanks
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  #7  
Old January 07, 2012, 02:46 PM
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Hmmm...


Think about this:

I am sending a package to...

I am sending for Michael to be here.

What do you think?
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Old January 07, 2012, 02:52 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by chileno View Post
Hmmm...


Think about this:

I am sending a package to...

I am sending for Michael to be here.

What do you think?
They sound fine to me. "I am sending for Michael to be her" sounds old fashioned to me. Correct, but old fashioned. I probly wouldn't say it
It makes me think of an English person from the Serendipity or similar movie. My wife made me watch it. I had no choice
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Old January 07, 2012, 04:59 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by caliber1 View Post
They sound fine to me. "I am sending for Michael to be her" sounds old fashioned to me. Correct, but old fashioned. I probly wouldn't say it
It makes me think of an English person from the Serendipity or similar movie. My wife made me watch it. I had no choice
For my money, "I am sending for Michael" is alright by itself, with the "to be here" well understood without having to be said.
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  #10  
Old January 07, 2012, 09:16 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by caliber1 View Post
They sound fine to me. "I am sending for Michael to be her" sounds old fashioned to me. Correct, but old fashioned. I probly wouldn't say it
It makes me think of an English person from the Serendipity or similar movie. My wife made me watch it. I had no choice
I understand. But aren't you missing the point?
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