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No entiendo la diferencia

 

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  #1  
Old July 13, 2013, 05:06 PM
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No entiendo la diferencia

Necesito ayuda con algo en español. Por qué es correcta esta frase "No le dejes pasar." pero no ésta? Te quiero venir.

Pudiera ayudarme alguien?
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  #2  
Old July 13, 2013, 05:37 PM
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'Te quiero venir' doesn't make any sense. Is it supposed to mean 'I want you to come"?
If so, the correct way to say that is 'Quiero que vengas'.

This has nothing to do with the other sentence. That means 'Don't let him enter/pass/pass by/go by/pass through/go through'.

Does that help any?
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Old July 13, 2013, 05:54 PM
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Entiendo que no tiene sentido pero la gramatica es la misma en comparación con la otra frase, no?
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Old July 13, 2013, 07:22 PM
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No le dejes pasar. - No quiero que pases.

No le dejes venir - No quiero que vengas.

No son lo mismo.
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Old July 13, 2013, 08:02 PM
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It would be much better if you chose other examples. The dissimilarities far outweigh the similarities.
If you're asking if both verbs can take both an indirect and a direct object, yes, but using an indirect object with 'querer' doesn't have a direct translation into English like it does with 'dejar'.
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Old July 13, 2013, 10:46 PM
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I am not sure if you are talking to me, because that sounds like Greek to me.

Now I could make it a bit easier...

No le dejes pasar. - No quiero que pases.
Do not let him pass - I don't want you to pass/get in etc.

No le dejes venir - No quiero que vengas.
Do not let him pass - I don't want you to come.
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Old July 14, 2013, 06:06 AM
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I wasn't talking to you chileno.
By the way, the OP isn't asking about the two sentences you are posting. He doesn't see the difference between 'No le dejes pasar' and 'Te quiero venir'. The first sentence is good. The second one makes no sense.
I believe he's asking if both verbs can take both an indirect and a direct object. I said they can, but they don't translate into English the same way. 'Querer' takes a direct object. So, 'lo quiero', 'la quiero' and 'te quiero' are common sentences. 'Le quiero' would be heard in some parts of the world (see leísmo).
"Le quiero cantar" is an example of the OP's second sentence. He wants to know if it's possible to use it (WITHOUT the use of leísmo). Or so I think.
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Old July 14, 2013, 07:50 AM
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Ok...

Like you, I replied the original phrases weren't the same.

Let's see what he understands at the end.


Hay que esperar por esperar.

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Old July 14, 2013, 04:38 PM
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En realidad, no estoy seguro. Es demasiado difícil para entender la diferencia.
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Old July 14, 2013, 05:56 PM
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The difference between what?
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