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No se me ocurre nada más

 

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  #1  
Old November 25, 2014, 09:27 AM
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yudithcool yudithcool is offline
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No se me ocurre nada más

Hi,
I'm a newbie Spanish learner.

I am a bit confused with this grammar.

( I found this )
- No SE me ocurre nada más.


can somebody tell me when we use "SE"?
and anybody here could explain me about DO and IO??
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  #2  
Old November 25, 2014, 07:57 PM
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Rusty Rusty is offline
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'Se' is a very versatile pronoun. It has many different uses - all of which have been discussed to a great extent in other threads (you may perform a search to find them).

The functions of Direct and Indirect Objects are the same in both English and Spanish, but placement differs.
Both of these objects have pronouns that can be used as a replacement, just as in English, but their placement seldom matches the placement used in English. There are many posts that discuss the object pronouns. There are many websites that provide ample information, as well.

The phrase 'no se me ocurre nada más' has a couple of things going on. The infinitive ocurrirse is pronominal (that's why it has a 'se' suffix). This is one of the ways the 'se' pronoun can be used.
One of the meanings of ocurrirse is "come to one's mind," and it takes an indirect object. This particular phrase substitutes a pronoun for the indirect object.
The first word negates the verb and 'nothing more' is the translation of the last two words.
So, the entire phrase means 'Nothing more comes to (my) mind', but the English rendition doesn't help you make sense of the fact that an indirect object is required in the Spanish version (instead of the possessive determiner used in the English version).
You just need to accept that "come to one's mind" is expressed using a pronominal verb that takes an indirect object, in this case.
When the infinitive is conjugated into the present indicative tense, the suffixed pronoun is relocated in front of the verb. The indirect object pronoun 'me' follows it. The subject is 'nothing', so that is why the verb is conjugated in the third-person. The 'nothing' that is 'not coming to mind' is happening 'to me'. That is why the indirect object pronoun is needed.
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Old November 27, 2014, 06:54 PM
Glen Glen is offline
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Hi yudithcool, and although you asked only about the grammar - and got Rusty's usual excellent explanation of it - I'd only add that the cognate verb ocurrir lends itself well to something on the order of "Nothing else occurs to me."
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